A 66-year-old retired mechanic is brought to the clinic by his daughter after experiencing difficulty walking over the past 24 hours. He reports a two-week history of dull, continuous pain in his mid-thoracic region that worsens when he lies flat in bed. His past medical history is significant for non-small cell lung cancer treated with radiation and chemotherapy two years ago. On neurologic examination, he demonstrates 3/5 strength in the bilateral lower extremities, diminished sensation to pinprick below the umbilicus, and symmetric hyperreflexia at the patellae and ankles. Rectal examination reveals decreased sphincter tone. Vital signs are within normal limits except for a temperature of 37.8°C (100.0°F). Laboratory results reveal a normal leukocyte count and a serum calcium level of 9.2 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
- AMagnetic resonance imaging of the entire spine
- BIntravenous ceftriaxone and vancomycin
- Intravenous dexamethasone administrationAnswer
- DIntravenous zoledronic acid
- ELumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis