A 28-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her husband due to severe anxiety, poor sleep, and behavioral changes. Three weeks ago, she was the victim of a violent home invasion. Since the event, she has experienced frequent, distressing flashbacks, severe insomnia, and an exaggerated startle response. She refuses to be left alone in the house, feels detached from her family, and is unable to return to work. Her medical history is notable for bipolar I disorder, which has been well-controlled on lithium for 5 years. She is also taking phenelzine, prescribed by a previous physician for treatment-resistant depression prior to her bipolar diagnosis. She is requesting medication to help alleviate her current distress. Which of the following are appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select exactly 2)
- Referral for trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapyAnswer
- Provision of psychoeducation about expected acute stress reactions and coping strategiesAnswer
- CFormal diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder and initiation of prolonged exposure therapy
- DAddition of sertraline to her current medication regimen to target intrusive symptoms
- EDiscontinuation of lithium and initiation of paroxetine monotherapy