A -year-old man with a -year history of structuring Crohn's disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and heart failure with preserved ejection fraction is currently hospitalized. He was admitted two days ago with colicky abdominal pain, obstipation, and bilious vomiting due to a mechanical small bowel obstruction. Initial management included bowel rest, intravenous fluids, and nasogastric decompression.
Over the past four hours, the patient reports a sudden transition from intermittent colicky pain to severe, unremitting diffuse abdominal pain. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals a rigid, silent abdomen with exquisite diffuse rebound tenderness and involuntary guarding.
Blood cultures drawn upon admission are currently growing *Escherichia coli* that is susceptible to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and metronidazole, but resistant to ampicillin.
| Laboratory Study | Result |
|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | (with bands) |
| Arterial pH | |
| pCO | |
| pO | |
| HCO |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Emergent exploratory laparotomy and initiation of intravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazoleAnswer
- BContinue nasogastric decompression and initiate high-dose intravenous hydrocortisone
- CEmergent exploratory laparotomy and initiation of intravenous meropenem and vancomycin
- DIntravenous sodium bicarbonate infusion followed by surgical consultation
- ENoninvasive positive pressure ventilation and intravenous furosemide