A -year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for severe right knee pain that began abruptly during the night. The patient states the pain is so intense that he cannot bear weight or tolerate the bedsheet touching his knee. His past medical history includes hypertension, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and stage 4 chronic kidney disease with a baseline estimated glomerular filtration rate of . His current medications are amlodipine and atorvastatin. Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , and heart rate of . Physical examination reveals a markedly swollen, erythematous, and exquisitely tender right knee. A joint aspiration is performed. Synovial fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of with segmented neutrophils. Gram stain of the fluid demonstrates no organisms. Polarized light microscopy reveals the presence of needle-shaped crystals with strong negative birefringence. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intra-articular methylprednisoloneAnswer
- BIntravenous ceftriaxone
- COral indomethacin
- DOral colchicine
- EOral allopurinol