A -year-old man comes to the clinic due to a -week history of abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhea, and a -kg (-lb) weight loss. He has to loose bowel movements daily. The abdominal pain is cramping in nature and localizes to the right lower quadrant. He has a history of mild asthma. Vital signs are temperature (), pulse , and blood pressure . Physical examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with moderate tenderness to deep palpation in the right lower quadrant. There is no rebound tenderness, guarding, or palpable mass. Bowel sounds are normal.
Laboratory studies show:
| Test | Result | Normal Range |
|---|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | - | |
| Leukocyte count | - | |
| C-reactive protein |
Stool studies for ova and parasites, routine bacterial pathogens, and *Clostridioides difficile* toxin are negative. A recent colonoscopy performed months ago for chronic diarrhea showed patchy areas of mucosal inflammation, erythema, and deep ulcerations in the terminal ileum, with a normal-appearing colon.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- APrescribe a course of ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
- BStart intravenous methylprednisolone
- CRecommend a high-fiber diet and oral loperamide
- Initiate oral budesonide therapyAnswer
- ERefer the patient for an elective ileocecal resection