During morning rounds, the care team reviews the chart of a 71-year-old woman who is currently receiving inpatient treatment for acute ascending cholangitis. She was admitted three days ago with a temperature of 39.2°C (102.6°F), severe right upper quadrant pain, and scleral icterus. On the day of admission, blood cultures were drawn, and she was started on empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam. The following day, she underwent an urgent endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), during which a 12-mm common bile duct stone was successfully extracted, restoring normal biliary flow. Today, the patient reports feeling significantly better and is tolerating a liquid diet. Her vital signs are a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure of 122/76 mm Hg, and pulse of 78/min. Laboratory studies show her leukocyte count has normalized to 7,500/mm³. The microbiology laboratory reports that the admission blood cultures are positive for *Escherichia coli*. The susceptibility panel confirms the isolate is resistant to ampicillin but highly susceptible to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Transition to intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CAdd intravenous metronidazole to the current regimen
- DAdd intravenous vancomycin to the current regimen
- EDiscontinue all antimicrobial therapy