A -year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter due to sudden, severe abdominal pain that started hours ago. The patient reports the pain is constant, diffuse, and poorly localized. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and a previous transient ischemic attack. She was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation one year ago but stopped taking her prescribed apixaban three months ago due to financial constraints. Her temperature is (), pulse is and irregularly irregular, blood pressure is , and respirations are . Physical examination shows a patient in significant distress, writhing on the stretcher. However, abdominal palpation elicits only mild, diffuse tenderness without rigidity, guarding, or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. Stool is negative for occult blood. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate of .
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AEmergent exploratory laparotomy
- Computed tomography angiography of the abdomenAnswer
- CColonoscopy
- DMesenteric duplex ultrasonography
- EUpright abdominal radiography