A -year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day following an uncomplicated open cholecystectomy. He reports the sudden onset of excruciating pain and swelling in his right knee that woke him from sleep early this morning. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine level of (baseline ) and a blood urea nitrogen level of . Physical examination reveals a warm, erythematous, exquisitely tender right knee with a visible effusion and severely limited range of motion. Arthrocentesis is performed, yielding of turbid yellow fluid. Synovial fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of with neutrophils. Polarized light microscopy reveals needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. Gram stain shows no organisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intra-articular glucocorticoid injectionAnswer
- BIntravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- COral indomethacin
- DLower extremity venous duplex ultrasonography
- EIntravenous furosemide