All practice questions

8270 questions

Question 3141Question →

A 24-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to concerns about her social development. The parents report that when they take her to the local playground, she sits near other children in the sandbox but does not interact or share her toys with them. The parents are worried she might have a neurodevelopmental disorder. The child has a vocabulary of approximately 50 words, puts two words together to form simple phrases, and can follow two-step commands. She consistently makes eye contact, points to birds in the sky to show her parents, and smiles when engaged in play. She has recently begun having temper tantrums when it is time to leave the playground. Her vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Reassurance and routine follow-up

Answer

Reassurance and routine follow-up
The correct answer provides reassurance and routine follow-up because this 24-month-old girl is meeting all appropriate developmental milestones. At age 2, children typically have a vocabulary of 50-200 words, use 2-word phrases, and follow 2-step commands. Socially, they engage in parallel play (playing alongside, but not directly with, other children) and begin to assert autonomy, often resulting in temper tantrums. Furthermore, she exhibits normal joint attention (pointing to show objects) and good eye contact, which strongly argues against a neurodevelopmental disorder such as autism.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's social play behavior
The patient plays alongside but not directly with other children, which is defined as parallel play.
Parallel play is the expected and completely normal social play stage for children between the ages of 2 and 3.
2
Assess communication and language milestones
The patient has 50 words, uses 2-word phrases, points to share interest, and makes good eye contact.
These milestones rule out gross language delay and deficits in social reciprocity (joint attention), which are hallmark signs of autism spectrum disorder.
3
Determine the significance of the temper tantrums
Tantrums when leaving the playground are a classic manifestation of a toddler asserting autonomy.
This is a normal behavioral phase in a 24-month-old and does not signify a disruptive behavioral disorder.
4
Synthesize findings to choose the management plan
All findings point to normal development.
When a child exhibits age-appropriate developmental milestones and normal behavioral variations, the correct management is parental reassurance.

Key Concept

Normal developmental milestones in a 24-month-old child
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3142Question →

A 54-year-old postmenopausal woman visits her physician after discovering a firm lump in her right breast. Clinical examination confirms a 2.5-cm, non-tender, relatively fixed mass in the right upper outer quadrant without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy. There is no overlying skin dimpling or nipple retraction. Arrange the following clinical steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for the standard evaluation and definitive management of this patient's newly discovered breast mass.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence for evaluating and managing a palpable breast mass in a woman aged 30 or older begins with diagnostic imaging, followed by a core needle biopsy, molecular characterization of the tumor, primary surgical intervention, and finally adjuvant therapies.
The standard sequence for a new palpable breast mass in a patient older than 30 begins with bilateral diagnostic mammography to evaluate the mass and screen the remainder of the breast tissue. This is followed by an image-guided core needle biopsy for a definitive histologic diagnosis. Once malignancy is confirmed, receptor testing (ER/PR/HER2) is performed on the biopsy specimen to guide treatment. The patient then undergoes definitive surgical management (e.g., lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy). Finally, adjuvant therapies (radiation, endocrine therapy, chemotherapy) are administered based on the final surgical pathology and receptor status.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Perform initial diagnostic imaging.
Characterizes the palpable mass and evaluates the rest of the breast tissue.
Women aged 30 and older with a breast mass require diagnostic mammography and ultrasound before any invasive procedures.
2
Perform core needle biopsy.
Provides a histologic tissue sample.
Solid, suspicious masses require tissue diagnosis to confirm malignancy and differentiate from benign pathology.
3
Test biopsy tissue for hormone and HER2 receptors.
Determines the tumor's molecular subtype.
Receptor status is critical for planning the appropriate multidisciplinary management.
4
Perform surgical resection.
Removes the primary tumor and stages the axilla.
Definitive local control is achieved through surgical excision (lumpectomy or mastectomy) with lymph node evaluation.
5
Administer adjuvant therapy.
Reduces the risk of local and distant recurrence.
Systemic and local adjuvant treatments follow surgery based on tumor characteristics and surgical pathology.

Key Concept

Diagnostic and management sequence for a palpable breast mass in women aged 30 and older.
Question 3143Question →

Match each clinical vignette with the most accurate DSM-5 diagnostic category.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 28-year-old musician experiences expected panic attacks exclusively upon entering the stage for solo performances, leading to avoidance of solo gigs, with no spontaneous attacks.
A 34-year-old new mother has ego-dystonic, horrifying thoughts of dropping her infant. She avoids stairs and silently repeats prayers to neutralize her distress, with no intent to harm.
A 52-year-old man avoids subways, enclosed spaces, and crowds for over a year due to intense fear of sudden diarrhea and being unable to easily escape or find a restroom.
A 26-year-old woman presents 3 weeks after a physical assault with dissociative amnesia, intrusive memories, hypervigilance, and avoidance of the location where the event occurred.
A 45-year-old man experienced a life-threatening earthquake 5 years ago. For the past 6 weeks, he has developed recurrent nightmares of the event, emotional numbing, and severe hyperarousal.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches are: Vignette 1 to Social Anxiety Disorder, Vignette 2 to Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, Vignette 3 to Agoraphobia, Vignette 4 to Acute Stress Disorder, and Vignette 5 to Posttraumatic Stress Disorder.
Each vignette provides specific temporal or phenomenological clues that map exactly to one DSM-5 diagnosis. Performance-only anxiety indicates Social Anxiety Disorder. Ego-dystonic intrusive thoughts with neutralizing mental rituals define OCD. Fear of difficult escape due to embarrassing symptoms in multiple situations indicates Agoraphobia. Trauma symptoms lasting less than one month denote Acute Stress Disorder, whereas those lasting more than one month denote PTSD, even with delayed onset.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Vignette 1 for triggers and types of panic attacks.
Expected panic attacks in performance settings only.
Differentiates Social Anxiety Disorder from Panic Disorder, which requires uncued attacks.
2
Analyze Vignette 2 for the nature of the mother's thoughts.
Intrusive, ego-dystonic thoughts managed with mental compulsions.
Differentiates postpartum OCD (ego-dystonic, no intent to harm) from Postpartum Psychosis (ego-syntonic, high risk of harm).
3
Analyze Vignette 3 for feared scenarios.
Fear of multiple public situations due to inability to escape an embarrassing symptom (diarrhea).
Defines Agoraphobia, distinguishing it from Specific Phobia or Panic Disorder.
4
Analyze Vignette 4 for the trauma timeline.
Trauma symptoms occurring 3 weeks post-event.
The <1 month duration differentiates Acute Stress Disorder from PTSD.
5
Analyze Vignette 5 for the trauma timeline.
Trauma symptoms lasting 6 weeks but starting 5 years post-event.
The >1 month duration defines PTSD. Delayed expression is a recognized subtype.

Key Concept

Differential diagnosis of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and trauma-related disorders relies on precise chronological criteria (e.g., ASD vs. PTSD) and the nature of expected vs. unexpected symptoms.
Estimated Time:3m 0s
Question 3144Question →

An otherwise healthy 42-year-old patient is evaluated in the outpatient setting for a new-onset, continuous, clear vaginal leakage. Two weeks prior, she underwent a complicated total laparoscopic hysterectomy for severe endometriosis involving dense pelvic adhesions. Her vital signs are within normal limits. A pelvic examination reveals clear fluid pooling in the vaginal vault, while the vaginal cuff appears intact and is healing appropriately. The physician suspects a postoperative urinary tract fistula. Arrange the following diagnostic and management steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for this patient.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence begins with the retrograde instillation of bladder dye, followed by vaginal inspection to rule out a vesicovaginal fistula, intravenous dye administration to confirm a ureterovaginal fistula, CT urography for anatomic localization, and finally, ureteral stenting for therapeutic management.
The correct sequence follows the standard diagnostic and therapeutic algorithm for a suspected post-hysterectomy urinary fistula. The initial step is to clinically differentiate the source of the fluid. Because vesicovaginal fistulas (VVFs) are the most common, a retrograde dye test (e.g., methylene blue via Foley catheter) is performed first. Inspection of the vagina then verifies if the bladder is intact. If no dye leaks, a VVF is ruled out. Next, intravenous dye (e.g., indigo carmine) is administered; it is filtered by the kidneys and travels down the ureters. If this dye appears in the vagina, a ureterovaginal fistula (UVF) is confirmed. Once clinically diagnosed, cross-sectional imaging (CT urography) is required to delineate the precise location, severity, and any associated complications (like a urinoma). Finally, initial management involves urinary diversion, typically achieved via cystoscopy and retrograde ureteral stenting, which allows the tissue to heal conservatively and reduces inflammation before any delayed surgical intervention is considered.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Test for vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) by instilling methylene blue into the bladder.
The bladder is filled with dye, allowing for evaluation of lower urinary tract integrity.
VVF is the most common post-hysterectomy fistula and must be ruled out first.
2
Inspect the vagina for blue dye.
No blue dye is observed in the vagina.
This negative result clinically rules out a VVF, indicating the leak is higher in the urinary tract.
3
Administer IV indigo carmine or oral phenazopyridine.
Dye appears in the vaginal vault.
The dye is excreted via the kidneys into the ureters. Its presence in the vagina confirms a ureterovaginal fistula (UVF).
4
Perform CT urography.
The exact location and severity of the ureteral thermal injury or transection is identified.
Imaging is necessary for surgical planning and to evaluate for associated urinomas or hydronephrosis.
5
Place a retrograde ureteral stent.
Urine is diverted away from the fistula tract.
Stenting promotes conservative healing. If unsuccessful, definitive surgical reimplantation (ureteroneocystostomy) is delayed for 6-12 weeks to allow inflammation to subside.

Key Concept

The step-wise clinical diagnosis of a postoperative genitourinary fistula involves ruling out a vesicovaginal fistula using retrograde bladder dye before confirming a ureterovaginal fistula with intravenous dye, followed by imaging and ureteral stenting.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3145Question →

A hospital psychopharmacology safety committee is updating institutional guidelines for the management of bipolar disorder. The committee is finalizing a safety dashboard that flags critical pre-treatment screenings, monitoring parameters, and absolute contraindications for various agents. Match each of the following psychotropic medications to its corresponding essential safety alert.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Carbamazepine
Lithium carbonate
Valproic acid
Lamotrigine
Citalopram

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Carbamazepine pairs with genetic screening for the HLA allele; Lithium carbonate pairs with serial evaluation of renal, thyroid, and calcium levels; Valproic acid pairs with baseline hepatic and complete blood count evaluation; Lamotrigine pairs with a highly structured dose-escalation schedule; and Citalopram pairs with the absolute contraindication for monotherapy.
Each medication utilized in bipolar disorder has distinct, high-yield safety considerations. Carbamazepine is notorious for causing Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), specifically in individuals of Asian descent carrying the HLA-B*1502 allele, making genetic screening crucial. Lithium is primarily renally excreted and can cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, tubulointerstitial nephropathy, hypothyroidism, and hyperparathyroidism (which elevates serum calcium). Therefore, renal function, thyroid stimulating hormone, and serum calcium must be monitored. Valproic acid has black-box warnings for potentially fatal hepatotoxicity and pancreatitis, as well as dose-related thrombocytopenia, requiring baseline and periodic liver function tests and complete blood counts. Lamotrigine is another mood stabilizer that can cause SJS/TEN; unlike carbamazepine, the risk is not managed by genetic screening but rather by a very strict, slow dose-titration schedule. Finally, citalopram (an SSRI) is an antidepressant. In bipolar disorder, antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated as it can precipitate an affective manic switch or rapid cycling.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Carbamazepine
Matched to genetic screening for a specific leukocyte antigen.
Carbamazepine requires HLA-B*1502 screening in specific Asian populations prior to initiation to prevent Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
2
Analyze Lithium carbonate
Matched to evaluation of renal, thyroid, and calcium levels.
Lithium requires chronic monitoring due to risks of tubulointerstitial nephropathy, hypothyroidism, and hypercalcemia secondary to hyperparathyroidism.
3
Analyze Valproic acid
Matched to hepatic and complete blood count evaluation.
Valproic acid has known risks of fatal hepatotoxicity and thrombocytopenia.
4
Analyze Lamotrigine
Matched to a highly structured dose-escalation schedule.
To minimize the risk of a benign rash progressing to Stevens-Johnson syndrome, lamotrigine requires a slow, multi-week titration.
5
Analyze Citalopram
Matched to the absolute contraindication for monotherapy.
SSRI monotherapy can induce a manic switch in patients with a history of bipolar disorder.

Key Concept

Safety profiles, pre-treatment screening, and monitoring requirements for psychotropic medications in bipolar disorder
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3146Question →

A 45-year-old woman is evaluated in the surgical clinic for a rapidly enlarging mass in her right breast. She first noticed a small lump approximately 4 months ago, but it has doubled in size over the past 4 weeks. She reports no pain, fever, or nipple discharge. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medications. On physical examination, the breasts appear asymmetric. A 7-cm, firm, smooth, and mobile mass is palpable in the upper half of the right breast. The overlying skin is stretched and shiny with prominent superficial veins, but there is no erythema, dimpling, or nipple retraction. No axillary or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy is appreciated. Breast ultrasonography demonstrates a large, solid, hypoechoic mass with internal cleft-like cystic spaces. A subsequent core needle biopsy reveals a biphasic proliferation consisting of benign epithelial elements and a hypercellular stroma with leaf-like architectural patterns. There are 6 mitoses per 10 high-power fields and moderate stromal atypia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Surgical removal of the mass with at least 1-cm tumor-free margins

Answer

Surgical removal of the mass with at least 1-cm tumor-free margins
The correct answer is surgical removal of the mass with at least 1-cm tumor-free margins. This patient's clinical presentation (a rapidly growing, large breast mass) and biopsy findings (biphasic proliferation with a hypercellular stroma and 'leaf-like' architecture) are diagnostic of a phyllodes tumor. The increased mitotic rate (6 per 10 high-power fields) and stromal atypia suggest a borderline or malignant variant. Because phyllodes tumors have a high propensity for local recurrence, standard management for all grades involves complete surgical excision with wide, grossly negative margins (typically at least 1 cm).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation and imaging findings.
A 45-year-old woman presents with a rapidly growing, large (7-cm) breast mass. Imaging shows a solid mass with cystic clefts.
To synthesize the initial clinical picture, which is highly suspicious for a rapidly proliferating neoplasm.
2
Interpret the core needle biopsy results.
The biopsy shows a biphasic tumor with a hypercellular stroma, leaf-like architecture, and increased mitoses.
To establish the definitive diagnosis of a borderline or malignant phyllodes tumor, which is distinctly characterized by these histological features.
3
Determine the appropriate surgical or medical management based on the tumor's biology.
The standard of care is surgical excision with wide margins (at least 1 cm) without routine axillary staging.
Phyllodes tumors have a high risk of local recurrence if not fully excised. However, unlike adenocarcinomas, they spread hematogenously rather than lymphatically, making axillary staging unnecessary.

Key Concept

Phyllodes tumors are rare, rapidly growing fibroepithelial breast tumors characterized by a leaf-like stromal architecture. The mainstay of treatment is wide local excision with margins of at least 1 cm to prevent recurrence; axillary lymph node staging is generally not required because these tumors spread hematogenously.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3147Question →

A psychiatric evaluation requires careful assessment of symptom duration to differentiate between primary psychotic disorders. Arrange the following diagnoses in correct chronological order based on the minimum continuous duration of symptoms required to meet diagnostic criteria, starting with the shortest duration and ending with the longest.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence based on symptom duration is: Brief psychotic disorder (1 day to less than 1 month), followed by Schizophreniform disorder (1 month to less than 6 months), and finally Schizophrenia (6 months or greater).
The diagnostic classification of primary psychotic spectrum disorders relies heavily on the total duration of the symptoms. Brief psychotic disorder is characterized by a rapid onset of psychotic symptoms that last at least 1 day but fully resolve within 1 month. If symptoms persist for at least 1 month but less than 6 months, the correct diagnosis is schizophreniform disorder. Once continuous signs of the disturbance (including the active phase, prodromal, or residual symptoms) have been present for at least 6 months, the diagnosis is classified as schizophrenia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the time criterion for Brief psychotic disorder.
Symptoms must last from 1 day to less than 1 month.
By definition, a brief psychotic episode is acute and self-limiting within a one-month timeframe.
2
Identify the time criterion for Schizophreniform disorder.
Symptoms must last from 1 month to less than 6 months.
Schizophreniform disorder occupies the intermediate duration between a brief psychotic episode and full schizophrenia.
3
Identify the time criterion for Schizophrenia.
Symptoms must last for at least 6 months.
A diagnosis of schizophrenia requires a minimum of 6 months of continuous disturbance, which may include prodromal or residual periods.

Key Concept

Diagnostic timeline for primary psychotic disorders
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3148Question →

A 72-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her son due to worsening confusion and refusal to eat or drink. For the past two months, she has experienced profound sadness, early morning awakenings, and a 9-kg (20-lb) weight loss. One week ago, her primary care physician diagnosed her with depression and started her on sertraline 50 mg daily. The son is unsure if the physician took a detailed psychiatric history. Over the last 3 days, the patient has stopped eating and drinking entirely, stating repeatedly, "My intestines are rotting away because of my sins." Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate is 112/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Physical examination shows remarkably dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor.

Laboratory TestResult
Blood urea nitrogen45 mg/dL
Creatinine1.9 mg/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone2.1 µU/mL
Free thyroxine1.2 ng/dL

After initiating intravenous fluid resuscitation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Refer for electroconvulsive therapy

Answer

The correct answer is referring the patient for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
The correct answer is referring the patient for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). This patient is experiencing a major depressive episode with psychotic features (evidenced by somatic delusions that her intestines are rotting). Furthermore, she has developed life-threatening inanition (complete refusal to eat or drink) leading to severe dehydration and acute kidney injury, as indicated by her hypotension, tachycardia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. While the standard pharmacological treatment for psychotic depression is an antidepressant combined with an antipsychotic, ECT is the first-line, definitive treatment when rapid clinical response is necessary to save the patient's life (e.g., severe suicidality, severe malnutrition, or severe dehydration).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis based on the timeline and symptoms.
Major depressive disorder with psychotic features.
The patient has a 2-month history of depressive symptoms followed by the recent onset of somatic delusions ("intestines are rotting away").
2
Assess the severity and immediate risks to the patient's health.
Life-threatening inanition and severe dehydration.
The patient has refused food and water for 3 days, leading to hypotension, tachycardia, and acute kidney injury (elevated BUN and creatinine).
3
Determine the most appropriate definitive psychiatric intervention.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
ECT is the treatment of choice for severe depression when a rapid response is required due to life-threatening conditions like inanition or high suicide risk.

Key Concept

Management of major depressive disorder with psychotic features and life-threatening inanition
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3149Question →

A 58-year-old nulliparous woman is evaluated in the clinic following a recent breast biopsy. She initially presented with a vague firmness in her left breast. Subsequent mammography revealed a 2.2-cm irregular, highly dense lesion with radiating spicules and clustered pleomorphic microcalcifications in the lower outer quadrant. Ultrasound imaging confirmed a solid, hypoechoic mass with architectural distortion and posterior acoustic shadowing. An uncomplicated core needle biopsy was performed under ultrasound guidance. The pathology report indicates fragments of dense fibrous stroma and benign ductal epithelium, with no atypical cells identified. The patient takes no medications and has no family history of breast cancer. On physical examination, there is a vague thickening in the left lower outer quadrant but no dominant mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Surgical excision of the lesion

Answer

Surgical excision of the lesion
The correct answer is surgical excision of the lesion. This patient presents with classic features of radiologic-pathologic discordance. The imaging findings (a spiculated, highly dense mass with pleomorphic microcalcifications, architectural distortion, and posterior acoustic shadowing) are highly suspicious for malignancy (BI-RADS 4 or 5). However, the core needle biopsy returned entirely benign tissue. When histopathology does not provide a concordant benign explanation for highly suspicious imaging, sampling error (missing the malignant focus during the needle biopsy) must be assumed. Therefore, the next most appropriate step is an excisional biopsy to obtain the entire lesion and definitively rule out breast cancer.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's imaging findings.
The mammogram and ultrasound demonstrate classic malignant features (spiculated mass, pleomorphic microcalcifications, architectural distortion), representing a highly suspicious (BI-RADS 4 or 5) lesion.
To establish the pre-test probability of malignancy before interpreting the biopsy.
2
Evaluate the core needle biopsy results.
The biopsy shows only benign changes (dense fibrous stroma, benign epithelium) without any atypical cells.
To determine if the histopathology provides a concordant explanation for the suspicious imaging findings.
3
Determine the appropriate management for radiologic-pathologic discordance.
Surgical excision of the lesion is required.
Because the benign pathology does not correlate with the highly suspicious imaging, a sampling error (false-negative biopsy) must be assumed, mandating definitive surgical excision to rule out carcinoma.

Key Concept

Radiologic-pathologic discordance in breast biopsy requires surgical excision.
Question 3150Question →

A 27-year-old woman is brought to the outpatient clinic by her sister. For the past 4 weeks, the patient has experienced profound sadness, sleeping up to 14 hours a day, low energy, and poor concentration. She states she lacks the motivation to get out of bed and has missed several days of work as a graphic designer. A review of her psychiatric history reveals that three years ago, she experienced an isolated 3-week episode of hearing voices and believing her neighbors were spying on her, which completely resolved without long-term intervention. One year ago, she had a distinct 10-day period during which she slept only 2 hours a night, exhibited pressured speech, and impulsively bought unnecessary high-end computer equipment that depleted her savings. She currently takes no medications. Her physical examination is unremarkable. During the visit, her sister asks the physician to call the patient's employer to explain her psychiatric condition and request a medical leave of absence on her behalf. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the physician?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine after discussing the treatment plan with the patient

Answer

The most appropriate action is to initiate quetiapine to treat the bipolar depression while maintaining patient confidentiality regarding the sister's request.
This patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode. However, her history of a 10-day episode characterized by decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and severe impairment (depleting her savings) confirms a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder. The most appropriate pharmacotherapy for acute bipolar depression includes certain second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone) or mood stabilizers (e.g., lithium, lamotrigine). Furthermore, ethical guidelines strictly dictate that a physician cannot disclose a patient's medical information to an employer without the patient's explicit consent, making it appropriate to decline the sister's request.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the current clinical syndrome
Major depressive episode
The patient presents with 4 weeks of profound sadness, hypersomnia, low energy, and poor concentration.
2
Review past psychiatric history to determine the primary diagnosis
Bipolar I disorder with a history of brief psychotic disorder
The 10-day episode of severe hyperactivity and reckless spending meets criteria for a manic episode (Bipolar I). The isolated 3-week psychotic episode represents a past brief psychotic disorder.
3
Select appropriate pharmacological management and handle the ethical dilemma
Initiate an atypical antipsychotic approved for bipolar depression and decline to contact the employer
Quetiapine treats bipolar depression without risking a manic switch. Contacting the employer without the patient's explicit consent violates confidentiality, regardless of the family member's intentions.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and management of acute bipolar depression while maintaining medical confidentiality.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3151Question →

A 45-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on postoperative day 2 following an open reduction and internal fixation of a fractured tibia. The nursing staff reports that he has become increasingly agitated, confused, and restless over the past 4 hours. He is sweating profusely and frantically points to the corner of the room, claiming that spiders are crawling on the walls. His temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 165/100 mmHg, pulse is 118/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Physical examination reveals a coarse, bilateral resting tremor in his hands. When contacted, the patient's husband reports that the patient typically drinks half a bottle of whiskey every evening but has not consumed any alcohol since his hospital admission. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administer intravenous lorazepam

Answer

Administer intravenous lorazepam
This patient's clinical presentation—agitation, confusion, visual hallucinations, coarse resting tremor, and severe autonomic instability (fever, tachycardia, hypertension)—occurring approximately 48 hours after his last drink is the classic presentation of delirium tremens (DTs). DTs is the most severe manifestation of alcohol withdrawal and carries a significant mortality rate if left untreated. The pathophysiology involves a sudden lack of GABAergic inhibition and a surge in excitatory glutamatergic activity. The appropriate next step in management is the administration of a benzodiazepine, such as intravenous lorazepam, diazepam, or chlordiazepoxide. Benzodiazepines substitute for the absent alcohol by stimulating GABA receptors, thereby reducing autonomic hyperactivity, controlling agitation, and preventing progression to withdrawal seizures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's timeline and vital signs.
The patient is roughly 48 hours out from his last drink (postoperative day 2). He is exhibiting severe autonomic instability (fever, hypertension, tachycardia).
Timing and vital signs differentiate the stages of alcohol withdrawal.
2
Identify the specific clinical syndrome based on the physical exam and history.
The combination of autonomic hyperactivity, coarse tremors, visual hallucinations, and altered mental status in the context of abrupt alcohol cessation indicates delirium tremens.
Delirium tremens is a life-threatening medical emergency requiring immediate pharmacological intervention.
3
Select the most appropriate pharmacotherapy.
Intravenous benzodiazepines (like lorazepam) are the standard of care.
Benzodiazepines enhance GABA-A receptor activity, which suppresses the rebound excitatory central nervous system activity caused by sudden alcohol cessation.

Key Concept

Management of severe acute alcohol withdrawal (Delirium Tremens)
Question 3152Question →

A 7-year-old boy is brought to the outpatient clinic by his parents due to behavioral concerns initially raised by his second-grade teacher. The teacher reports that the boy frequently leaves his seat during lessons, blurts out answers before questions are completed, and has significant difficulty waiting his turn during group activities. The parents report that he is similarly highly active at home, rarely sits still to finish a meal, and acts as if 'driven by a motor.' These behaviors have been present consistently since he was 4 years old and cause significant frustration for the family and school staff. Hearing and vision screens are normal. He has no other medical conditions. Based on the most likely diagnosis, which of the following statements regarding the evaluation and management of this patient are correct? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Behavioral parent training is recommended as an effective primary intervention.; Central nervous system stimulants, such as methylphenidate, are considered appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy.

Answer

The correct statements are that behavioral parent training is an effective primary intervention, and central nervous system stimulants like methylphenidate are appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy.
The patient's presentation of pervasive hyperactivity and impulsivity occurring in multiple settings (school and home), onset before age 12, and causing functional impairment is classic for Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). For school-aged children with ADHD, evidence-based first-line interventions include behavioral parent training and central nervous system stimulants, such as methylphenidate or amphetamines. Both approaches significantly reduce core ADHD symptoms and improve the child's social and academic functioning.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary diagnosis based on the clinical vignette.
The patient has symptoms of hyperactivity (leaving seat, driven by a motor) and impulsivity (blurting out answers, difficulty waiting turns) present in two settings (home and school) for over 6 months, with onset before age 12. This confirms Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD).
Establishing the correct diagnosis is required to evaluate the appropriateness of the proposed management strategies.
2
Determine the correct evidence-based management strategies for a school-aged child with ADHD.
First-line treatments include behavioral therapy (such as parent training) and pharmacotherapy with central nervous system stimulants (like methylphenidate or amphetamine derivatives).
To accurately identify which of the provided statements correctly describe the management of the diagnosed condition.

Key Concept

Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) Diagnosis and Management
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3153Question →

A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe diffuse muscle cramps, nausea, vomiting, and profound restlessness. He has a 5-year history of intravenous heroin use. He reports that he last injected heroin 12 hours ago. Determined to quit, he took a sublingual film given to him by a friend who is currently in a medication-assisted treatment program. Within 30 minutes of taking the film, his symptoms rapidly worsened. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure of 152/94 mm Hg, heart rate of 118/min, and respiratory rate of 18/min. Physical examination reveals mydriasis, rhinorrhea, excessive lacrimation, and piloerection. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Which of the following pharmacodynamic properties of the principal active medication in this sublingual film best explains the rapid exacerbation of this patient's symptoms?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: High affinity and low intrinsic activity at the mu-opioid receptor

Answer

High affinity and low intrinsic activity at the mu-opioid receptor
The correct answer accurately describes the pharmacodynamics of buprenorphine. The patient is experiencing precipitated opioid withdrawal. He ingested a sublingual medication used for opioid use disorder, which is typically a combination film of buprenorphine and naloxone. Buprenorphine is a partial mu-opioid receptor agonist. This means it has very high binding affinity for the receptor, but low intrinsic activity compared to full agonists like heroin. Because of its exceptionally high affinity, buprenorphine tightly binds to the mu-opioid receptors, effectively displacing any residual heroin. However, because it has low intrinsic activity, it provides significantly less receptor activation than the patient's current tolerance level requires. This sudden drop in opioid receptor stimulation rapidly plunges the dependent patient into severe acute withdrawal.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's clinical syndrome based on history and physical exam findings.
The patient is in acute opioid withdrawal, evidenced by mydriasis, piloerection, rhinorrhea, vomiting, and sympathetic overactivity.
Recognizing the toxidrome is the first step in determining the underlying etiology of the rapid clinical deterioration.
2
Determine the likely composition of the ingested sublingual film.
Sublingual films given in medication-assisted treatment (MAT) programs for opioid use disorder typically contain a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone.
Identifying the active drugs is necessary to understand the pharmacodynamic mechanism.
3
Evaluate the pharmacokinetics of the drug components when administered sublingually.
Sublingual buprenorphine is well-absorbed systemically. Sublingual naloxone has extremely poor bioavailability (<10%) and remains largely inert in the system.
This rules out naloxone as the cause of the precipitated withdrawal, as it is only active if the film is illicitly dissolved and injected intravenously.
4
Apply the pharmacodynamic profile of the active systemic drug to the patient's physiology.
Buprenorphine is a partial mu-opioid receptor agonist. It has higher binding affinity than heroin/methadone but lower intrinsic activity.
By competitively displacing residual heroin from the receptors without providing equivalent activation, buprenorphine causes a rapid, net deficit in opioid signaling, leading to precipitated withdrawal.

Key Concept

Precipitated opioid withdrawal due to buprenorphine partial agonism
Question 3154Question →

Match each clinical presentation to the most appropriate depressive disorder subtype or related diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 35-year-old man describes a two-year history of chronically low mood, fatigue, and poor self-esteem, stating 'I have just always been a sad person.'
A 24-year-old woman with a two-month history of severe depression reports sleeping 14 hours a day, significant weight gain, and a heavy, weighted feeling in her limbs.
A 50-year-old man with severe anhedonia, early morning awakening, and a 15-lb weight loss over one month also reports hearing voices telling him he is 'rotten inside.'
A 29-year-old woman reports profound sadness, irritability, and breast tenderness that begin a week prior to her menses and resolve completely a few days after onset.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches align classic clinical features with their corresponding specific depressive disorder subtypes.
Each clinical vignette provides classic, textbook symptoms that uniquely define a specific depressive disorder or specifier. Matching them correctly requires knowledge of the DSM-5 criteria for Persistent Depressive Disorder (duration > 2 years), MDD with atypical features (hypersomnia, hyperphagia, leaden paralysis), MDD with psychotic features (delusions/hallucinations during a depressive episode), and Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (luteal phase symptom onset).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the chronological duration and severity of the first presentation.
Two years of chronic, mild-to-moderate low mood without prolonged symptom-free periods.
This timeline differentiates Persistent Depressive Disorder from episodic Major Depressive Disorder.
2
Evaluate the specific vegetative symptoms in the second presentation.
Increased sleep, increased appetite/weight, and leaden paralysis are identified.
These reverse vegetative symptoms define the 'atypical features' specifier for MDD.
3
Identify the presence of perceptual disturbances in the third presentation.
Auditory hallucinations accompanying severe depression are noted.
Hallucinations occurring in the context of a major depressive episode establish the 'psychotic features' specifier.
4
Examine the temporal relationship of symptoms in the fourth presentation.
Symptoms are exclusively present in the late luteal phase and resolve with menses.
This cyclical pattern is the diagnostic core of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder.

Key Concept

Clinical differentiation of depressive disorder subtypes based on duration, specifiers, and temporal patterns.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3155Question →

A 42-year-old man comes to a new primary care clinic to establish care. During the interview, he is highly suspicious of the electronic medical record system and demands to know exactly who will have access to his data. He mentions he is involved in multiple ongoing lawsuits against former employers, whom he claims were "sabotaging his career" and "spying on his daily activities." He refuses to provide a complete medical history, stating, "Any information I give you will eventually be used against me." He also complains that the clinic's triage nurse intentionally delayed his vital signs assessment to mock him. His thought processes are organized, and there is no evidence of auditory or visual hallucinations. He states these interpersonal issues have been present since he was a young adult. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Adopt a formal, transparent approach and clearly explain the rationale for any requested medical information

Answer

Adopt a formal, transparent approach and clearly explain the rationale for any requested medical information
The clinical vignette describes a patient with pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others, constantly interpreting their motives as malevolent. He suspects others are exploiting or deceiving him (lawsuits against employers), is reluctant to confide in the physician for fear the information will be used against him, and perceives attacks on his character (accusing the triage nurse of mocking him). These features, present since early adulthood and occurring without frank hallucinations or disorganized thought, are diagnostic of paranoid personality disorder. The most effective management strategy for patients with paranoid personality disorder in a general medical setting is to maintain a professional, respectful, and straightforward demeanor. Physicians should be transparent, clearly explain the rationale for questions or medical procedures, and avoid becoming defensive or overly warm, as excessive friendliness may be interpreted with deep suspicion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits pervasive distrust, suspicion of others' motives, reluctance to confide, and perceived attacks on his character, all starting in early adulthood without frank psychosis. This is consistent with paranoid personality disorder.
Accurate diagnosis is required to guide appropriate physician-patient interactions and subsequent management.
2
Determine the most effective communication and management strategy for this disorder.
A formal, transparent, and respectful approach is the standard of care for these patients. Overly warm behavior or defensiveness can exacerbate paranoid ideation.
Building a functional therapeutic alliance minimizes conflict and encourages compliance with routine medical care.

Key Concept

Management of Paranoid Personality Disorder
Question 3156Question →

A 28-year-old woman presents to a new primary care physician to establish care. She reports feeling chronically "empty" and describes a history of intense, unstable relationships. She recently ended her engagement after a minor disagreement and subsequently engaged in reckless driving and binge eating. She states her previous psychiatrist was "completely incompetent," whereas she feels the current physician is "the only one who truly listens." Her current medication is tranylcypromine, an monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), which she takes for atypical depression. During the evaluation, she denies active suicidal ideation or intent but mentions she occasionally feels like she would be "better off dead." Which of the following are appropriate management steps for this patient? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Establish a structured treatment framework with explicit boundaries regarding communication and clinic visits; Provide a referral for dialectical behavior therapy as the primary modality of treatment

Answer

Establish a structured treatment framework with explicit boundaries, and provide a referral for dialectical behavior therapy.
The patient's clinical presentation—characterized by chronic feelings of emptiness, unstable and intense interpersonal relationships, impulsivity (binge eating, reckless driving), and the idealization/devaluation (splitting) of healthcare providers—is classic for borderline personality disorder (BPD). The cornerstone of managing BPD in any clinical setting involves establishing clear, consistent boundaries to prevent splitting, manage countertransference, and ensure a stable therapeutic framework. Furthermore, the most robustly evidence-based, first-line treatment for BPD is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT), which focuses on skill-building in mindfulness, distress tolerance, emotion regulation, and interpersonal effectiveness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation to determine the most likely underlying personality pathology.
The patient exhibits chronic emptiness, unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity (reckless driving, binge eating), and splitting (idealizing the current physician while devaluing the previous one). This presentation points directly to borderline personality disorder (BPD).
Accurate recognition of the personality disorder is required to formulate an appropriate, safe management plan and anticipate behavioral challenges.
2
Identify evidence-based non-pharmacological treatments and appropriate physician-patient dynamics for the primary diagnosis.
Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is the first-line treatment for BPD. Additionally, strict, consistent boundaries regarding clinic visits and communication must be established to manage splitting and prevent provider burnout.
BPD is primarily managed with specialized psychotherapy and structural boundaries rather than relying on pharmacological interventions to treat the core pathology.
3
Evaluate the patient's current medication regimen against any proposed pharmacological interventions or systemic management steps.
The patient is taking tranylcypromine, an MAOI. Adding serotonergic agents (like SSRIs) is absolutely contraindicated. Breaking confidentiality is also unwarranted as she poses no acute, imminent threat to others.
Preventing adverse drug interactions, such as fatal serotonin syndrome, and maintaining ethical standards are critical steps in safe patient management.

Key Concept

The management of Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) primarily involves dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) and establishing strict provider-patient boundaries; polypharmacy must be approached cautiously, avoiding contraindicated combinations like MAOIs and SSRIs.
Question 3157Question →

A 54-year-old man is brought to the outpatient psychiatry clinic by his wife due to a 4-month history of significant behavioral changes. Previously known as a quiet and highly professional bank manager, he has recently become excessively blunt, apathetic, and socially disinhibited. Last week, he made explicit sexual remarks to a neighbor and was reprimanded at work for taking food directly off a colleague's desk. He has no prior psychiatric history. His medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He currently takes lisinopril and atorvastatin; he also recently started occasionally taking his wife's fluoxetine. Vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory results, including a complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, and a normal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level, are unremarkable. On mental status examination, he is alert and fully oriented. His short-term memory recall is intact, but he demonstrates significant impairments on the trail-making test and verbal fluency tasks. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

Answer

Frontotemporal dementia
The most likely diagnosis is frontotemporal dementia (FTD), specifically the behavioral variant. FTD typically presents in patients between the ages of 50 and 60. The classic clinical picture involves early and profound changes in personality and behavior, including social disinhibition (e.g., inappropriate sexual remarks), apathy, loss of empathy, and hyperorality (e.g., taking food from others). Cognitive testing typically reveals prominent executive dysfunction (impaired trail-making and verbal fluency) with relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills early in the disease course. The absence of a prior psychiatric history in a middle-aged patient with these specific behavioral changes makes a neurocognitive disorder highly likely.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's demographic and primary symptoms.
A 54-year-old man presenting with new-onset apathy, social disinhibition, and hyperorality over 4 months.
To establish the core clinical syndrome and rule out lifelong psychiatric conditions.
2
Evaluate the cognitive testing and laboratory results.
Intact short-term memory but impaired executive function (trail-making, verbal fluency); normal TSH.
To differentiate cortical vs. subcortical, and frontal vs. temporal/parietal neurocognitive deficits, and to rule out reversible medical causes like hypothyroidism.
3
Synthesize the findings to determine the most likely etiology.
Early-onset personality changes with prominent executive dysfunction and preserved memory strongly indicate the behavioral variant of a primary neurocognitive disorder, differentiating it from pseudodementia.
To arrive at the final diagnosis of frontotemporal dementia.

Key Concept

The behavioral variant of frontotemporal dementia classically presents in patients aged 50-60 with early personality changes, social disinhibition, apathy, and executive dysfunction, while memory and visuospatial skills remain relatively intact early in the disease course.
Question 3158Question →

Review the following brief patient profiles and match each clinical presentation to its most likely DSM-5 psychiatric diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 30-year-old man intensely fears speaking in public and eating in front of others due to a persistent fear of being negatively evaluated or embarrassed.
A 25-year-old woman experiences abrupt, unprovoked episodes of intense fear with palpitations, followed by weeks of persistent worry about having another episode.
A 22-year-old veteran, who returned from combat 6 months ago, experiences recurrent nightmares, flashbacks, and an exaggerated startle response.
A 40-year-old man reports 8 months of excessive, uncontrollable worry about multiple everyday issues, accompanied by muscle tension and poor sleep.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The presentations are matched based on their hallmark DSM-5 criteria: Social Anxiety Disorder (fear of negative evaluation), Panic Disorder (recurrent unexpected panic attacks with anticipatory anxiety), Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (symptoms lasting >1 month after trauma), and Generalized Anxiety Disorder (>6 months of excessive worry across multiple domains).
Each clinical profile classically aligns with foundational DSM-5 diagnostic criteria: Social Anxiety Disorder requires a fear of scrutiny; Panic Disorder requires unexpected attacks plus anticipatory worry; PTSD requires trauma exposure with symptoms extending beyond 1 month; and GAD requires excessive, multi-domain worry lasting 6 months or more.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first profile regarding social situations.
Identified fear of negative evaluation and embarrassment.
To distinguish from generalized anxiety or agoraphobia.
2
Analyze the second profile regarding episodic fear.
Identified unprovoked panic attacks coupled with anticipatory anxiety.
To differentiate Panic Disorder from situational panic attacks.
3
Analyze the third profile regarding post-combat symptoms.
Identified trauma exposure with intrusive and hyperarousal symptoms lasting beyond 1 month.
To accurately distinguish PTSD from Acute Stress Disorder.
4
Analyze the fourth profile regarding chronic worry.
Identified multi-domain worry and muscle tension lasting 8 months.
To confirm the minimum 6-month temporal requirement for Generalized Anxiety Disorder.

Key Concept

Diagnosis of anxiety and trauma-related disorders relies on identifying the core fear (e.g., negative evaluation, sudden physiological panic) and verifying the temporal duration of symptoms.
Question 3159Question →

A 42-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic for a routine follow-up. She was diagnosed with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer 8 months ago, underwent a lumpectomy and radiation therapy, and is currently taking tamoxifen. When asked about her general well-being, she reports an 8-week history of profound fatigue, sleeping up to 14 hours a day, increased appetite with a 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight gain, and a heavy, "leaden" feeling in her arms and legs that makes it difficult to get out of bed. Her functional impairment is significant, and she recently took a leave of absence from her job. A review of her psychiatric history reveals a similar depressive episode at age 22. Further questioning reveals that at age 24, she experienced a 5-day period where she felt "euphoric and invincible," required only 3 hours of sleep per night, and rapidly outlined a 300-page screenplay. This period resolved spontaneously without hospitalization. Last week, her primary care physician diagnosed her with depression and prescribed paroxetine, but the patient discontinued it after 2 days due to mild nausea. She currently takes no medications other than tamoxifen. Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacological management of this patient's psychiatric symptoms?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate lurasidone

Answer

Initiate lurasidone
This patient meets the criteria for Bipolar II disorder (current episode depressed with atypical features) based on her history of a major depressive episode and a distinct 5-day period of hypomania (euphoria, decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity lasting ≥\geq 4 days without requiring hospitalization). Standard antidepressant monotherapy is generally contraindicated in bipolar depression due to the risk of precipitating a manic or hypomanic switch. First-line treatments for bipolar depression include lurasidone, quetiapine, cariprazine, and the olanzapine-fluoxetine combination. Furthermore, this patient is taking tamoxifen for breast cancer. Tamoxifen is a prodrug that requires activation by the cytochrome P450 2D6 (CYP2D6) enzyme to its active metabolite, endoxifen. Lurasidone does not significantly inhibit CYP2D6 and is an FDA-approved, effective monotherapy for bipolar depression, making it the safest and most appropriate choice.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the psychiatric condition based on the timeline and clinical features.
The patient has Bipolar II disorder, currently in a major depressive episode with atypical features.
She has a history of a major depressive episode and a distinct 5-day period of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and increased goal-directed activity (hypomania requires ≥4 days without hospitalization/psychosis). Her current episode features hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and leaden paralysis (atypical features).
2
Determine the appropriate class of psychiatric medications.
Standard antidepressant monotherapy (SSRIs, SNRIs, bupropion) is contraindicated due to the risk of precipitating a hypomanic/manic switch.
First-line treatments for bipolar depression include lurasidone, quetiapine, cariprazine, and olanzapine-fluoxetine combination.
3
Analyze the pharmacological constraints presented by the patient's medical history.
The patient is taking tamoxifen, a prodrug that requires activation by the CYP2D6 enzyme into its active metabolite, endoxifen.
Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors (such as paroxetine, fluoxetine, and bupropion) must be strictly avoided to prevent breast cancer recurrence.
4
Select the optimal agent that fulfills both psychiatric and pharmacological requirements.
Lurasidone is selected as it treats bipolar depression effectively without significantly inhibiting CYP2D6.
It addresses the mood episode safely without compromising the patient's oncologic treatment.

Key Concept

Management of Bipolar II depression in patients taking tamoxifen requires avoiding antidepressant monotherapy (due to manic switch risk) and avoiding strong CYP2D6 inhibitors (due to negation of tamoxifen efficacy).
Question 3160Question →

A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic accompanied by his husband. He has a history of early-stage colon cancer that was surgically resected 6 months6 \text{ months} ago. For the past two months, the patient has experienced pervasive sadness, a 6 kg6 \text{ kg} (13.2 lb13.2 \text{ lb}) weight loss, severe insomnia, and a complete lack of energy. He has also developed the conviction that his cancer is a direct punishment for his past mistakes. He states, "I just need an antidepressant to get my life back." His only current medication is lisinopril for hypertension. Laboratory studies reveal a low free thyroxine (T4) level and a normal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 1.2 mIU/L1.2 \text{ mIU/L}. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation and management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Screen the patient for a lifetime history of abnormally elevated mood and decreased need for sleep

Answer

Screen the patient for a lifetime history of abnormally elevated mood and decreased need for sleep
The correct answer is to screen the patient for a lifetime history of abnormally elevated mood and decreased need for sleep. This patient presents with a major depressive episode (MDE) characterized by severe melancholic and mood-congruent psychotic features (delusions of punishment). Before initiating any antidepressant therapy for an MDE, it is mandatory to screen for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes. Identifying a past manic episode changes the diagnosis from Major Depressive Disorder (unipolar depression) to Bipolar I Disorder. Prescribing antidepressant monotherapy to a patient with bipolar disorder carries a significant risk of inducing a manic switch. Therefore, careful history-taking regarding periods of elevated energy, impulsivity, and decreased need for sleep is the most critical next step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation.
The patient meets the criteria for a major depressive episode (depressed mood, weight loss, insomnia, anergia, excessive guilt) that has lasted for 2 months.
Establishing the current syndromic diagnosis is the first step in psychiatric evaluation.
2
Evaluate the medical workup provided in the stem.
The patient has laboratory findings consistent with euthyroid sick syndrome or secondary hypothyroidism (low T4, normal TSH), but primary hypothyroidism is explicitly ruled out.
Medical causes of depression must be considered, but his severe vegetative and mood-congruent psychotic symptoms point to a primary psychiatric etiology requiring specific psychiatric management.
3
Determine the necessary prerequisite before treating a major depressive episode.
A history of mania or hypomania must be ruled out through direct screening.
Antidepressant monotherapy can precipitate a manic switch in patients with underlying bipolar disorder. Therefore, screening for elevated mood and decreased sleep is mandatory before prescribing any antidepressant.

Key Concept

All patients presenting with a major depressive episode must be carefully screened for a lifetime history of manic or hypomanic episodes to rule out bipolar disorder prior to initiating antidepressant monotherapy.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
PreviousPage 158 / 414Next
All practice questions — USMLE Step 2 CK | Examkin