Pediatric Musculoskeletal Disorders

47 questions

Question 41Question →

During a health maintenance visit, a 1313-year-old adolescent male reports a 44-week history of a constant, dull ache in his left anterior thigh and knee. He has no history of recent trauma, fever, or prior medical conditions. His body mass index is 32 kg/m232 \text{ kg/m}^2. Vital signs are within normal limits, with a temperature of 36.8∘C36.8^\circ\text{C} (98.2∘F98.2^\circ\text{F}), heart rate of 78/min78/\text{min}, and blood pressure of 112/72 mm Hg112/72 \text{ mm Hg}. On physical examination, the left knee has no effusion, erythema, or joint line tenderness, and range of motion is full and painless. However, his gait is noticeably antalgic, and his left foot rests in an externally rotated position while standing. Passive internal rotation of the left hip is restricted and elicits pain. Laboratory evaluation reveals an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 9 mm/h9 \text{ mm/h}, a C-reactive protein level of 0.4 mg/dL0.4 \text{ mg/dL}, and a leukocyte count of 7,100/mm37,100/\text{mm}^3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Anteroposterior and frog-leg lateral radiographs of the bilateral hips

Answer

Anteroposterior and frog-leg lateral radiographs of the bilateral hips
The correct answer is bilateral hip radiography because the patient's clinical presentation is highly suspicious for Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE). SCFE typically occurs in obese adolescents undergoing rapid growth. The displacement of the proximal femoral epiphysis leads to hip pain, an antalgic gait, and obligate external rotation of the hip. Crucially, up to 15%15\% of patients present solely with referred pain to the thigh or knee due to the shared innervation by the obturator nerve. A completely normal knee examination in the setting of thigh or knee pain should immediately prompt evaluation of the hip. Anteroposterior and frog-leg lateral radiographs of both hips are required to confirm the diagnosis, as posterior displacement may only be visible on the lateral view, and the condition is bilateral in 20%20\% to 40%40\% of cases.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's demographic and clinical risk factors.
The patient is a 1313-year-old obese male, which is the classic demographic for Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE).
SCFE is most common in obese adolescents undergoing rapid growth spurts due to increased shear stress on the physis.
2
Evaluate the physical examination findings in the context of the reported symptoms.
The patient reports knee/thigh pain, but the knee exam is completely normal. Conversely, the hip shows restricted internal rotation and obligate external rotation.
Hip pathology frequently presents as referred pain to the anterior thigh or knee via the obturator nerve. A normal knee exam with an abnormal hip exam localizes the lesion to the hip.
3
Review the laboratory results to rule out competing diagnoses.
Normal ESR, CRP, WBC, and afebrile status.
Normal inflammatory markers reliably rule out infectious causes like septic arthritis or osteomyelitis, pointing toward a biomechanical issue.
4
Determine the most appropriate diagnostic modality.
Bilateral anteroposterior and frog-leg lateral hip radiographs are selected.
Both AP and lateral views are required because early SCFE slippage is often posterior and may only be visible on the lateral projection. Bilateral imaging is standard as the condition is bilateral in up to 40%40\% of patients.

Key Concept

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) often presents with referred knee pain and requires bilateral hip radiographs (AP and frog-leg lateral views) for diagnosis.
Question 42Question →

A full-term female infant is delivered vaginally from a breech presentation. The mother has a positive family history of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). The pediatrician is discussing the long-term evaluation and potential treatment plan for this condition with the parents. Assuming the patient will require the complete spectrum of standard medical intervention due to progressive or refractory disease, arrange the following steps in the chronological sequence they would be appropriately performed, starting from birth and progressing through late infancy.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Physical assessment utilizing Barlow and Ortolani maneuvers, followed by Screening ultrasonography of the hips, then Application of a Pavlik harness, and finally Closed reduction and spica casting.
The evaluation and management of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) follow a strict chronological sequence based on the infant's age and anatomical development. All newborns are screened at birth with physical exam maneuvers (Barlow and Ortolani). Infants with high-risk factors (e.g., breech presentation) require a screening ultrasound at 4 to 6 weeks, intentionally delaying slightly to avoid false positives from transient physiological laxity. If DDH is diagnosed, early intervention (under 6 months) utilizes a Pavlik harness to dynamically stabilize the hip. If the harness fails or the child presents later (6 to 18 months), treatment escalates to closed reduction and spica casting under anesthesia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the newborn at birth.
Barlow and Ortolani maneuvers are performed.
Universal screening begins in the nursery to detect gross dislocations or instability before the infant goes home.
2
Perform screening imaging for the high-risk infant.
An ultrasound of the hips is obtained at 4 to 6 weeks of age.
Breech presentation is a major risk factor requiring imaging. Ultrasound is preferred before 4-6 months due to unossified femoral heads, but is delayed until 4 weeks to avoid false positives from normal physiologic laxity.
3
Initiate first-line treatment upon confirmed diagnosis.
A Pavlik harness is applied.
For infants under 6 months with confirmed DDH, this harness dynamically maintains hip flexion and abduction to promote normal acetabular development.
4
Escalate treatment for refractory disease.
Closed reduction and spica casting is performed.
This is indicated when the Pavlik harness fails to achieve reduction or in late-presenting cases, typically in children older than 6 months.

Key Concept

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH): Screening and Escalation of Management
Question 43Question →

A worried father brings his 44-year-old son to the pediatric clinic due to acute-onset refusal to walk over the past 2424 hours. The child was previously healthy except for a mild rhinovirus infection that resolved 1010 days ago. Current vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.9∘C38.9^{\circ}\text{C} (102.0∘F102.0^{\circ}\text{F}), pulse of 118/min118/\text{min}, and respirations of 22/min22/\text{min}. On physical examination, the child is irritable and resists any passive range of motion of the right hip, which is held in a flexed, abducted, and externally rotated position. Laboratory analysis demonstrates a leukocyte count of 14,500/μL14,500/\mu\text{L}, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 55 mm/h55 \text{ mm/h}, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 32 mg/L32 \text{ mg/L}. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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Answer: Ultrasound-guided arthrocentesis

Answer

The most appropriate next step in management is ultrasound-guided arthrocentesis to evaluate for septic arthritis.
The correct next step in management is ultrasound-guided arthrocentesis. This 44-year-old boy presents with an acute inability to bear weight, fever, and marked elevation of inflammatory markers. The diagnosis of a pediatric limp requires differentiating benign etiologies, such as transient synovitis, from orthopedic emergencies like septic arthritis. The Kocher criteria are classically used to assess the probability of septic arthritis based on four clinical predictors: non-weight-bearing status on the affected side, temperature > 38.5∘C38.5^{\circ}\text{C} (101.3∘F101.3^{\circ}\text{F}), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) ≥40 mm/h\geq 40 \text{ mm/h}, and a serum white blood cell (WBC) count >12,000/μL> 12,000/\mu\text{L}. This patient meets all four criteria, which correlates with a >99%>99\% probability of septic arthritis. Consequently, the immediate next step is an urgent ultrasound-guided arthrocentesis to obtain synovial fluid for cell count, Gram stain, and aerobic/anaerobic cultures. Decompression of the joint space is also critical to prevent irreversible ischemic damage and cartilage destruction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's clinical presentation and laboratory values using the Kocher criteria for the limping child.
The patient exhibits a fever > 38.5∘C38.5^{\circ}\text{C}, inability to bear weight, an ESR > 40 mm/h40 \text{ mm/h}, and a serum WBC count > 12,000/μL12,000/\mu\text{L}.
Applying these criteria helps differentiate a benign condition (transient synovitis) from a medical emergency (septic arthritis).
2
Calculate the probability of septic arthritis and determine the corresponding intervention.
Having 4 out of 4 Kocher predictors yields a probability of septic arthritis exceeding 99%.
High-probability cases require immediate diagnostic confirmation and joint decompression to prevent cartilage destruction.
3
Select the most appropriate initial procedural step before beginning medical therapy.
Diagnostic arthrocentesis (typically ultrasound-guided) must be performed.
Aspiration obtains synovial fluid for cell count, Gram stain, and culture, which is essential to guide targeted antimicrobial therapy before empiric antibiotics are administered.

Key Concept

Kocher Criteria and Management of Pediatric Septic Arthritis
Question 44Question →

A variety of pediatric musculoskeletal conditions present with distinct physical examination signs or characteristic resting postures. Match each specific clinical examination finding with the most appropriate underlying diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Passive flexion of the affected hip results in an obligatory external rotation of the thigh.
A palpable 'clunk' is felt when the hip is gently abducted while lifting the greater trochanter anteriorly.
The affected arm is held tightly against the body with the elbow slightly flexed and the forearm fully pronated.
Localized tenderness and prominence are noted over the anterior proximal tibia, worsening with resisted knee extension.

Matches

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Answer

1. Obligatory external rotation matches Slipped capital femoral epiphysis. 2. Palpable clunk on abduction matches Developmental dysplasia of the hip. 3. Flexed and pronated arm matches Radial head subluxation. 4. Anterior proximal tibia tenderness matches Osgood-Schlatter disease.
Each physical examination finding is uniquely characteristic of its corresponding diagnosis, reflecting the specific underlying anatomical disruption. SCFE alters hip biomechanics causing external rotation on flexion. The Ortolani maneuver reduces DDH. Radial head subluxation causes a specific protective posture, and Osgood-Schlatter disease presents with point tenderness at the tibial tubercle.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first finding involving obligatory external rotation during hip flexion.
This aligns with slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).
The posterior and inferior displacement of the epiphysis alters the joint mechanics, forcing external rotation.
2
Evaluate the infant hip maneuver describing a 'clunk' on abduction.
This describes the Ortolani test for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH).
The clunk represents the femoral head relocating into the acetabulum over the posterior rim.
3
Assess the toddler's arm posture of slight flexion and pronation.
This is the classic presentation of radial head subluxation.
This resting posture minimizes tension on the entrapped annular ligament.
4
Identify the cause of anterior proximal tibial tenderness worsened by resisted extension.
This is characteristic of Osgood-Schlatter disease.
Repetitive strain from the patellar tendon on the tibial tubercle apophysis leads to this local inflammatory condition.

Key Concept

Classic physical examination findings in pediatric musculoskeletal disorders
Question 45Question →

A 1515-month-old boy is brought to the pediatric clinic by his paternal grandmother for a routine evaluation. She expresses significant concern regarding the child's "curved legs" and insists that he requires immediate corrective casting to prevent permanent deformity. The patient's mother, who has sole legal custody and is accessible via phone, previously discussed this finding with the physician and stated she is comfortable with conservative observation. The child began walking independently at 1212 months of age and is currently acquiring new vocabulary. His diet is well-balanced and includes fortified whole milk and a daily multivitamin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a happy, well-appearing toddler with symmetric bilateral genu varum (bowlegs). There is no localized tenderness, erythema, or leg-length discrepancy. His gait is steady without limping. A basic metabolic panel, serum calcium, phosphorus, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and free T4 are all within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Reassurance and routine observation

Answer

Reassurance and routine observation
Reassurance and routine observation is correct because this patient presents with classic physiologic genu varum. In children, knee alignment normally shifts from varus (bowlegs) at birth to neutral at around 18-24 months, then to valgus (knock-knees) by age 3-4, and finally to slight valgus by age 7. Given the symmetry, normal stature, lack of pain, and normal metabolic labs (ruling out rickets), no medical or surgical intervention is warranted. Furthermore, the mother has sole legal custody and has agreed to observation, so the grandmother's demands should not dictate care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical presentation and physical exam findings.
Symmetric bilateral genu varum in a well-appearing 15-month-old with no pain or functional impairment.
To differentiate between physiologic and pathologic bowing.
2
Assess developmental milestones and laboratory values.
Normal onset of walking (12 months) and normal metabolic/endocrine laboratory tests.
To rule out metabolic bone diseases like rickets or developmental delays.
3
Determine the ethical constraints regarding consent.
The mother has sole legal custody and agrees with conservative management, superseding the grandmother's demands.
To ensure legally appropriate surrogate decision-making is followed.

Key Concept

Physiologic genu varum is a normal developmental variant in children under 2 years of age and requires only reassurance and observation.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 46Question →

A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to refusal to use her left arm. The mother reports that an hour ago, they were walking on a slippery sidewalk when the child lost her balance. To prevent her from falling to the ground, the mother instinctively pulled up firmly on the child's left hand. Following this, the child immediately began crying and has since refused to bend her elbow or reach for toys. Vital signs include a temperature of 37.0∘C37.0^\circ\text{C} (98.6∘F98.6^\circ\text{F}), pulse of 105/min105/\text{min}, and blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg90/60\text{ mm Hg}. On physical examination, the child is calm when left undisturbed but holds her left arm adducted against her side with the elbow slightly flexed and the forearm pronated. There is no erythema, ecchymosis, or focal point tenderness upon palpation of the clavicle, shoulder, humerus, elbow, or wrist. As part of the initial triage protocol, point-of-care laboratory studies are obtained and reveal a leukocyte count of 7,200/mm37,200/\text{mm}^3, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 6 mm/hr6\text{ mm/hr}, and a C-reactive protein of 0.3 mg/dL0.3\text{ mg/dL}. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Hyperpronation of the left forearm

Answer

Hyperpronation of the left forearm is the most appropriate next step in management.
This patient's presentation is pathognomonic for radial head subluxation, commonly known as Nursemaid's elbow. It typically occurs in children aged 1 to 4 years when axial traction is applied to a pronated and extended arm (such as being pulled by the hand to prevent a fall). This traction causes the annular ligament to slip over the head of the radius and become trapped in the radiohumeral joint. Children present holding the affected arm close to their body, with the elbow slightly flexed and the forearm pronated. Crucially, there is no focal swelling, deformity, or point tenderness. When the history and physical examination are classic, the most appropriate next step is immediate manual reduction. Hyperpronation of the forearm (while applying pressure to the radial head) is the preferred technique, as it has a higher first-attempt success rate and is often perceived as less painful than the traditional supination-flexion maneuver.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the mechanism of injury and physical examination findings.
The patient experienced axial traction on an extended arm, followed by acute pseudoparalysis with the arm held flexed and pronated. There is no focal tenderness or swelling.
This establishes a classic clinical picture of radial head subluxation (Nursemaid's elbow).
2
Evaluate the need for diagnostic workup versus immediate intervention.
Given the classic presentation and absence of focal point tenderness or signs of infection (normal vitals and inflammatory markers), imaging or extensive workup is unnecessary.
Unnecessary imaging delays care and causes undue distress; clinical diagnosis warrants immediate therapeutic intervention.
3
Select the appropriate therapeutic maneuver.
Closed reduction via hyperpronation (or supination-flexion) is selected.
Hyperpronation is highly effective and often less painful than the supination-flexion maneuver for reducing the subluxed annular ligament.

Key Concept

Radial head subluxation (Nursemaid's elbow) is a common pediatric injury diagnosed clinically and treated with immediate manual reduction, typically by hyperpronation.
Question 47Question →

A 2-week-old male infant is evaluated in the pediatric orthopedic clinic for bilateral foot deformities present since birth. Physical examination reveals marked plantar flexion of the ankles, inversion of the heels, and medial deviation of the forefeet. The deformities are rigid and cannot be passively corrected to a neutral, anatomic position. Neurological examination of the lower extremities is unremarkable, and the spine is normal. A diagnosis of idiopathic congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot) is made, and the parents agree to proceed with the gold-standard conservative management approach. Arrange the following steps of this treatment protocol (the Ponseti method) in the most appropriate chronological order, from initial intervention to long-term maintenance.

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Answer

The correct sequence for the Ponseti method in treating congenital clubfoot is: (1) Serial manipulation and weekly long-leg casting, (2) Percutaneous Achilles tenotomy, (3) Final post-tenotomy long-leg cast, and (4) Foot abduction orthosis for long-term maintenance.
Congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot) is characterized by four distinct structural deformities: cavus, adductus, varus, and equinus (acronym: CAVE). The universally accepted standard of care is the Ponseti method, which relies on the plastic properties of infant connective tissue. The correct chronological sequence is highly specific. First, weekly serial manipulation and long-leg casting are performed (typically requiring 4 to 6 casts) to sequentially correct the cavus, adductus, and varus deformities. Second, because the Achilles tendon is severely contracted and does not stretch adequately with casting, a percutaneous Achilles tenotomy is required in over 80% of cases to correct the final equinus deformity. Third, immediately following the tenotomy, a final long-leg cast is applied for about three weeks to allow the tendon to heal with the foot in its newly corrected, dorsiflexed position. Finally, because clubfoot has a strong biological tendency to relapse, the infant is transitioned to a foot abduction orthosis (brace) worn 23 hours a day for several months, followed by nighttime wear for several years.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the diagnosis and the indicated treatment pathway.
The patient has idiopathic congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot). The standard of care is the Ponseti method.
Rigid equinovarus deformities in an infant require structured, sequential correction rather than simple observation or immediate extensive surgical release.
2
Determine the correct chronological order of interventions within the Ponseti method.
The sequence is serial casting, followed by Achilles tenotomy, followed by a healing cast, and finally long-term bracing.
Deformities must be corrected in a specific anatomical sequence (cavus, then adductus, then varus) using casts before addressing the equinus deformity via tenotomy. Bracing maintains the final alignment.

Key Concept

Chronological management of congenital talipes equinovarus (Ponseti method)
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