Psychiatry

814 questions

Question 361Question →

During a routine primary care visit, a 31-year-old architect describes feeling 'drained of all energy' for the past month. She reports sleeping up to 13 hours daily, a 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight gain, and profound sadness. She states, 'I cannot concentrate on my blueprints anymore.' The patient has no prior medical conditions and takes no daily medications. Upon further questioning, she recalls a period in her early 20s when she felt 'on top of the world' for about a week. During that time, she slept only 2 hours a night, spent her entire savings on luxury clothes, and felt her thoughts were racing, which ultimately led to a brief inpatient admission. Currently, she appears lethargic and speaks with a flat affect. She reports that for the past 2 days, she has occasionally heard a voice calling her name when she is alone in her apartment. Laboratory studies show a TSH of 1.5μU/mL1.5 \mu U/mL (normal: 0.5−5.0μU/mL0.5-5.0 \mu U/mL) and free T4 of 1.2ng/dL1.2 ng/dL (normal: 0.9−1.7ng/dL0.9-1.7 ng/dL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management?

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Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

Initiate quetiapine
The correct approach is to initiate quetiapine. This patient is experiencing a major depressive episode, but her history of a severe mood episode featuring elevated mood, decreased sleep, impulsivity, and racing thoughts that required hospitalization is classic for a manic episode. Therefore, her diagnosis is Bipolar I Disorder, currently in a depressive episode. Quetiapine, lurasidone, and cariprazine are FDA-approved atypical antipsychotics with established efficacy as monotherapy for acute bipolar depression. They effectively target the depressive symptoms without significantly increasing the risk of a manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the current syndrome based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has 1 month of depressed mood, hypersomnia, weight gain, fatigue, and poor concentration.
These symptoms fulfill the criteria for a major depressive episode.
2
Evaluate past psychiatric history for manic or hypomanic episodes.
The patient had a previous episode of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, impulsivity (spending savings), and racing thoughts requiring hospitalization.
A history of mania reclassifies the current depressive episode as part of Bipolar I Disorder, altering the management algorithm entirely.
3
Select the appropriate pharmacotherapy for acute bipolar depression.
Quetiapine is selected as the most appropriate next step.
First-line treatments for acute bipolar depression include quetiapine, lurasidone, or cariprazine. Standard antidepressant monotherapy must be avoided to prevent a manic switch.

Key Concept

Patients with a history of manic episodes who present with acute depression must be treated with mood-stabilizing agents or specific atypical antipsychotics (like quetiapine) rather than antidepressant monotherapy to avoid precipitating a manic switch.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 362Question →

Match each patient's presentation of a depressive disorder or related mood disturbance with the most appropriate therapeutic intervention.

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Items

A female patient in her early thirties is evaluated for profound sadness. Her psychiatric history includes a distinct 6-day period of reduced sleep, rapid speech, and impulsive behavior.
A male patient in his late sixties is admitted for a severe mood disorder. He refuses all oral intake, claiming his internal organs have decayed, leading to rapid physiological decline.
A young man who began taking sertraline for a first-episode major depressive disorder reports complete resolution of his symptoms after 6 weeks. He now strongly desires to stop taking the medication immediately.
A middle-aged woman with unipolar depression notes only a partial reduction in her symptoms despite completing an 8-week trial of fluoxetine at the maximum tolerated dosage.

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Answer

The correct pairings match each distinct clinical scenario to its evidence-based management: avoiding SSRI monotherapy for bipolar depression, utilizing ECT for life-threatening psychotic depression, ensuring a 4-to-9-month continuation phase to prevent early relapse, and utilizing augmentation for a partial SSRI response.
Each correct pairing applies foundational psychiatric management principles. Recognizing bipolar depression prevents the error of antidepressant monotherapy. Identifying life-threatening psychotic depression correctly prompts urgent ECT. Understanding the continuation phase of treatment prevents premature discontinuation. Recognizing partial response guides the choice of augmentation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the history of the female patient with reduced sleep and rapid speech.
The history confirms bipolar disorder rather than unipolar depression.
Screening for past hypomanic episodes is critical to avoid inappropriate antidepressant monotherapy.
2
Assess the severity and features of the older male patient's condition.
He exhibits psychotic features (somatic delusions) and life-threatening oral refusal.
These severe features mandate rapid intervention with ECT rather than waiting weeks for pharmacotherapy to take effect.
3
Determine the appropriate duration of therapy for the young man in remission.
Therapy must continue for 4 to 9 months beyond acute remission.
Premature discontinuation significantly increases the risk of an early relapse.
4
Formulate a plan for the middle-aged woman with partial SSRI response.
Augmentation is chosen over switching because she has shown some response and tolerates the medication.
Augmentation builds on the partial response without losing the progress already achieved.

Key Concept

Management of Depressive Disorders and Complications
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 363Question →

A 33-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting sudden-onset episodes of chest tightness, palpitations, and sweating. These episodes started 3 weeks ago after she survived a severe multi-car collision. The episodes are triggered whenever she attempts to get into a vehicle. She reports having recurrent nightmares about the crash, avoids driving completely, and feels detached from her husband and children. Physical examination and an electrocardiogram are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Acute stress disorder

Answer

Acute stress disorder
The patient experienced a life-threatening traumatic event (severe car collision) and now exhibits a classic cluster of post-traumatic symptoms: intrusion (nightmares), avoidance (refusing to drive), dissociation/negative mood (feeling detached), and arousal (panic-like symptoms). Because these symptoms have been present for less than 1 month (currently 3 weeks), the precise diagnostic classification is acute stress disorder.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the nature of the precipitating event.
The patient survived a severe multi-car collision, which qualifies as a life-threatening traumatic event.
Establishing the presence of a severe trauma is the first step in differentiating trauma-related disorders from general anxiety disorders.
2
Analyze the patient's symptom profile.
The patient has intrusive symptoms (nightmares), avoidance (refusing to drive), negative mood/dissociation (feeling detached), and arousal (palpitations, sweating).
These specific symptom clusters confirm a full syndromal response to the trauma rather than a simple stress response or adjustment issue.
3
Evaluate the timeline of the symptoms.
The trauma occurred 3 weeks ago, meaning the symptoms have been present for less than 1 month.
The duration of symptoms is the critical distinguishing factor between acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder.
4
Synthesize the findings to make a definitive diagnosis.
Trauma exposure plus characteristic symptoms lasting between 3 days and 1 month confirms acute stress disorder.
Applying the DSM-5 criteria strictly based on the timeline leads to the correct diagnosis.

Key Concept

The primary clinical distinction between acute stress disorder (ASD) and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is the symptom duration: ASD applies when symptoms last between 3 days and 1 month, whereas PTSD is diagnosed when symptoms persist beyond 1 month.
Question 364Question →

A 38-year-old woman presents to the outpatient psychiatry clinic seeking help for severe distress. Ten months ago, she was the victim of a violent home invasion. Since then, she experiences recurrent, intrusive nightmares of the event, avoids being alone in her house, and feels constantly "on guard." She states she feels emotionally detached from her husband. Her past psychiatric history includes a hospitalization at age 22 for a week-long period of decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and grandiose delusions, followed by a severe depressive crash. Three weeks ago, a primary care physician started her on phenelzine for her low mood. She read online that paroxetine is effective for trauma survivors and asks if she can start taking it today to help with her nightmares. Which of the following are the most appropriate actions in the management of this patient's current presentation? (Select 2)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Initiate exposure-based trauma-focused psychotherapy; Advise the patient that combining paroxetine with her current medication risks life-threatening autonomic instability and neuromuscular hyperactivity

Answer

The most appropriate actions are to initiate exposure-based trauma-focused psychotherapy and to explicitly warn the patient about the fatal risks of combining her current MAOI (phenelzine) with an SSRI (paroxetine).
The patient presents with classic symptoms of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) stemming from a traumatic event 10 months ago. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy, including exposure techniques, is a first-line treatment for PTSD and is highly appropriate. Additionally, her request to start paroxetine (an SSRI) while taking phenelzine (a monoamine oxidase inhibitor) presents a critical safety issue. The physician must advise her that this combination is absolutely contraindicated as it can precipitate Serotonin Syndrome, characterized by autonomic instability, altered mental status, and neuromuscular hyperactivity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Establish the primary current diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits intrusive symptoms (nightmares), avoidance, negative alterations in cognition/mood (emotional detachment), and hyperarousal (on guard) persisting for >1 month following a life-threatening event. Diagnosis: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD).
Accurate diagnosis is required to guide first-line treatment selection, which for PTSD includes trauma-focused psychotherapy.
2
Evaluate the patient's request to add paroxetine to her current phenelzine regimen.
Phenelzine is an MAOI. Paroxetine is an SSRI. Combining them is absolutely contraindicated due to the risk of Serotonin Syndrome.
Preventing lethal pharmacological interactions is the most urgent safety priority in this clinical scenario.
3
Analyze the patient's past psychiatric history to assess the safety of future pharmacological adjustments.
The patient has a history of a week-long episode of decreased sleep, rapid speech, and grandiose delusions. This represents a manic episode, confirming a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.
Identifying comorbid Bipolar I Disorder is crucial because it rules out the use of antidepressant monotherapy (such as starting an SSRI after a washout period) due to the high risk of inducing a manic switch.

Key Concept

Management of PTSD requires careful screening for comorbid Bipolar Disorder to avoid antidepressant-induced mania, and strict avoidance of MAOI and SSRI co-administration to prevent Serotonin Syndrome.
Question 365Question →

A 38-year-old woman with no prior medical or psychiatric history is evaluated in the outpatient clinic after her employer mandated a medical leave of absence. According to her husband, the patient has spent the last 4 months obsessively dismantling the home smoke detectors and covering all the windows with heavy blankets. She claims that a coordinated surveillance team is transmitting voices directly into her ears, warning her of an impending abduction. The husband notes that her personal hygiene has deteriorated significantly during this timeframe, and she rarely leaves her bedroom. Physical examination, routine laboratory studies, and a comprehensive urine toxicology screen are all within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

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Answer: Schizophreniform disorder

Answer

The most appropriate diagnosis is schizophreniform disorder, as the patient presents with classic psychotic symptoms lasting between 1 and 6 months.
The correct answer accurately reflects the DSM-5 criteria for schizophreniform disorder. The patient has two or more active-phase psychotic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, negative symptoms) that have been present for a significant portion of time over a 4-month period. Because the total duration of the disturbance is greater than 1 month but less than 6 months, schizophreniform disorder is the definitive diagnosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's core psychiatric symptoms.
The patient exhibits delusions (surveillance team), auditory hallucinations (voices in her ears), and negative symptoms/functional decline (deteriorated hygiene, isolation).
Establishing the presence of active-phase psychotic symptoms is the first step in diagnosing a primary psychotic disorder.
2
Determine the exact duration of the psychotic symptoms.
The husband reports the symptoms have been present for exactly 4 months.
Duration is the primary differentiating factor between acute and chronic psychotic spectrum disorders in the DSM-5.
3
Rule out secondary causes of psychosis.
Physical examination, labs, and a urine toxicology screen are normal, ruling out substance-induced psychosis or psychosis due to a medical condition.
A primary psychiatric diagnosis can only be made after organic etiologies are excluded.
4
Apply the timeline criteria for primary psychotic disorders.
Symptoms lasting >1 month but <6 months meet the criteria for schizophreniform disorder.
Less than 1 month indicates brief psychotic disorder; greater than 6 months indicates schizophrenia.

Key Concept

The diagnosis of primary psychotic disorders is highly dependent on the duration of symptoms: Brief Psychotic Disorder (<1 month), Schizophreniform Disorder (1-6 months), and Schizophrenia (>6 months).
Question 366Question →

A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotic treatment of acute pyelonephritis. Over the past 48 hours, she has been exceptionally demanding and critical of the nursing staff. She frequently states that she is a "VIP in the corporate world" and insists that only the attending physician is qualified to draw her blood or assess her vital signs. She threatens to sue the hospital over a 15-minute delay in her meal delivery, claiming that her time is "far more valuable than anyone else's in this mediocre facility." When the attending physician explains that her serum creatinine is slightly elevated, she becomes furious, accusing the medical team of incompetence and demanding an immediate transfer to a "world-class hospital." She displays no signs of hallucinations or disorganized thought, and her mood is euthymic as long as her demands are accommodated. Her past medical history is notable for multiple cosmetic surgeries. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for the physician to take in managing this patient?

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Answer: Validate her distress regarding her illness while calmly setting limits and maintaining consistent clinical expectations

Answer

Validate her distress regarding her illness while calmly setting limits and maintaining consistent clinical expectations
The patient's presentation—characterized by grandiosity, a need for special treatment, a sense of entitlement, and extreme sensitivity to perceived inadequacy (narcissistic injury)—is highly characteristic of narcissistic personality disorder (NPD). In a medical setting, illness represents a loss of control and a threat to the patient's idealized self-image, often leading them to act entitled, demand "the best" clinicians, and become easily enraged when they feel delayed or criticized. The most effective management strategy for patients with NPD is to acknowledge and validate their underlying distress and vulnerability (e.g., fear of being sick or poorly cared for) without confirming their grandiosity. Simultaneously, the physician must set clear, non-punitive limits and maintain strict professional boundaries. This approach prevents the escalation of narcissistic rage while ensuring the delivery of necessary medical care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric pathology based on the clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits grandiosity, a need for admiration, a sense of entitlement, and sensitivity to perceived criticism, which are hallmark traits of Narcissistic Personality Disorder (NPD).
Recognizing the underlying personality structure is crucial for predicting patient behavior, interpreting their reactions to illness, and tailoring effective communication.
2
Differentiate the presentation from acute mood or psychotic disorders.
The absence of hallucinations, disorganized thought, or sustained mood episodes rules out brief psychotic disorder, schizophrenia, or bipolar mania.
Accurate differentiation prevents the inappropriate use of psychotropic medications for behavioral issues that stem from characterological traits rather than neurochemical imbalances.
3
Determine the most appropriate behavioral management strategy for NPD in an inpatient medical setting.
The physician should validate the patient's underlying distress and feelings of vulnerability while firmly maintaining professional boundaries and clinical limits.
Direct confrontation exacerbates narcissistic injury and rage, while total capitulation reinforces pathological entitlement. A balanced, structured approach ensures safe and effective care delivery.

Key Concept

Management of Narcissistic Personality Disorder in a medical setting
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 367Question →

A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with severe agitation, diaphoresis, visual hallucinations, and tachycardia. His last alcoholic drink was 48 hours ago. He expresses a strong desire to stop drinking permanently. Arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate chronological order, from immediate emergency care to long-term maintenance.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: 1) Administer intravenous thiamine and evaluate ABCs, 2) Administer symptom-triggered benzodiazepines, 3) Initiate maintenance pharmacotherapy, and 4) Refer to outpatient psychosocial support.
The correct sequence follows the standard clinical progression for substance use disorders: acute physiological stabilization (ABCs and Wernicke prophylaxis), management of the acute withdrawal syndrome (benzodiazepines), initiation of relapse prevention medications (naltrexone), and finally, long-term psychosocial integration (therapy).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate life-threatening priorities.
The patient requires acute stabilization with ABC evaluation and prophylactic thiamine to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.
Emergency protocols dictate that physiological stabilization and prevention of irreversible neurological damage take precedence over all other interventions.
2
Address the acute pathology presenting in the emergency department.
Symptom-triggered benzodiazepines are administered for alcohol withdrawal.
Once stabilized, the acute withdrawal symptoms (hallucinations, tachycardia, agitation) must be managed to prevent progression to seizures or delirium tremens.
3
Determine the next step for post-acute care.
Maintenance pharmacotherapy is initiated to reduce cravings.
After the acute withdrawal phase has safely resolved, medications like naltrexone or acamprosate are started to help maintain abstinence.
4
Plan for long-term health maintenance.
The patient is referred to outpatient psychosocial support.
Long-term recovery relies on sustained behavioral changes, which are supported by cognitive behavioral therapy and mutual-help groups.

Key Concept

Chronological management of alcohol use disorder from acute withdrawal to long-term maintenance.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 368Question →

Match each clinical vignette describing a patient with a bipolar spectrum illness to the most appropriate next best step in management or pharmacologic rationale.

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Items

A 28-year-old man on bipolar maintenance therapy presents with ataxia, confusion, and a coarse tremor after starting a new medication for hypertension. Serum drug concentration is 2.1 mEq/L.
A 24-year-old woman with a history of recurrent depression presents with severe psychomotor agitation, pressured speech, and grandiosity three weeks after initiating citalopram.
A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 7 weeks gestation requires hospital admission for acute, severe mania with psychotic features. She has no prior psychiatric medication history.
A 40-year-old man with bipolar I disorder requires maintenance pharmacotherapy but has a history of severe hepatic steatosis and markedly elevated transaminases.
A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder presents with a diffuse, painful vesicular rash and mucosal ulcerations two weeks after her medication dosage was rapidly doubled.

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Answer

The correct matches align each unique clinical scenario with its definitive management: lithium toxicity requires hydration/hemodialysis; SSRI-induced mania requires stopping the SSRI; first-trimester mania is treated with antipsychotics; hepatic impairment necessitates renally cleared lithium; and lamotrigine-induced rash requires immediate cessation for Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Each vignette represents a classic, high-yield clinical scenario in bipolar disorder management requiring a specific targeted intervention. Lithium is renally cleared and subject to thiazide toxicity. Antidepressants like citalopram can trigger manic switches and must be stopped. First-trimester mania is managed with antipsychotics rather than teratogenic mood stabilizers. Liver disease precludes hepatically cleared drugs like valproate, favoring lithium. Rapid lamotrigine titration causes Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient with ataxia, coarse tremors, and a level of 2.1 mEq/L.
Identify lithium toxicity precipitated by a new antihypertensive (thiazide).
Thiazides decrease renal lithium clearance, leading to toxic levels requiring IV hydration and cessation of the diuretic.
2
Evaluate the patient presenting with grandiosity after starting citalopram.
Identify SSRI-induced mania.
Antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated in bipolar disorder due to the risk of triggering a manic switch; the SSRI must be stopped as the next best step.
3
Assess the 7-week pregnant patient with acute mania.
Select haloperidol or another safe antipsychotic.
Valproate and carbamazepine are strictly avoided in the first trimester due to teratogenicity, making antipsychotics the safest acute intervention.
4
Determine the best maintenance drug for a patient with severe hepatic disease.
Select lithium.
Lithium does not undergo hepatic metabolism, avoiding further liver injury in a patient with severely elevated transaminases.
5
Diagnose the vesicular rash with mucosal involvement after rapid drug titration.
Identify lamotrigine-induced Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Rapid titration of lamotrigine dramatically increases the risk of life-threatening dermatologic reactions, requiring immediate drug discontinuation.

Key Concept

Management of bipolar disorder requires tailoring pharmacotherapy to patient-specific factors, recognizing drug-drug interactions (e.g., lithium and thiazides), managing unique toxicities (e.g., lamotrigine-induced Stevens-Johnson syndrome), and avoiding antidepressant monotherapy.
Question 369Question →

Review the clinical vignettes below and match each patient presentation to the most accurate subtype of delusional disorder.

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Items

A 45-year-old man who is convinced without evidence that his coworkers are conspiring to get him fired and have tapped his phone.
A 30-year-old woman who persistently believes a famous actor is secretly in love with her and sends him letters daily.
A 60-year-old man who insists he has a rare parasitic infection in his intestines despite multiple negative medical workups.
A 50-year-old woman who believes she has made a groundbreaking scientific discovery that will save humanity, though she has no background in science.

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Answer

The conspiracy belief aligns with the persecutory type, the celebrity love belief with the erotomanic type, the parasitic infection belief with the somatic type, and the unrecognized scientific discovery belief with the grandiose type.
Each delusional disorder subtype is defined strictly by its central thematic element. Identifying the core false belief directly dictates the accurate diagnostic classification without requiring analysis of symptom timeline, provided the symptoms have been present for at least 1 month.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core theme of the fixed, false belief for each patient presentation.
Identified themes are: conspiracy/harm, secret love, physical illness/defect, and inflated self-worth/talent.
Delusional disorder subtypes are classified based on the predominant delusional theme.
2
Match the identified themes to the official psychiatric diagnostic nomenclature.
Conspiracy maps to Persecutory; secret love maps to Erotomanic; physical illness maps to Somatic; inflated self-worth maps to Grandiose.
Accurate classification is required for standardized diagnosis and subsequent management of delusional disorders.

Key Concept

Subtypes of delusional disorder are determined by the predominant theme of the patient's fixed, false beliefs.
Question 370Question →

A 71-year-old retired architect is brought to the neurologist by his daughter due to a 9-month history of progressive cognitive decline. Initially, he began having difficulty organizing his finances and interpreting architectural blueprints. Six months ago, he started experiencing vivid episodes during sleep where he thrashes around and shouts, sometimes injuring his wife. Over the last 3 months, he has reported seeing silent, unfamiliar children playing in his living room, though he is generally not distressed by them. He has a history of major depressive disorder treated with sertraline. Two weeks ago, his primary care physician suspected an underlying bipolar diathesis but ultimately only increased his sertraline dose. A few days later, he was prescribed linezolid at an urgent care clinic for a suspected skin infection. A thyroid panel obtained last week showed a TSH of 0.1 μU/mL (normal: 0.4-4.0 μU/mL) and a free T4 of 0.6 ng/dL (normal: 0.9-1.7 ng/dL). On physical examination today, his temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 128/82 mmHg, and heart rate is 76/min. He has a mask-like facies and increased resting muscle tone with a catch-and-release pattern in both arms. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally without clonus. His Mini-Mental State Examination score is 21/30. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies

Answer

Major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies
The correct diagnosis is major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies (DLB). DLB is characterized by progressive cognitive decline (often presenting with early executive and visuospatial deficits, as seen with this architect's difficulties) along with at least two core clinical features. This patient exhibits three core features: REM sleep behavior disorder (dream enactment behavior), recurrent well-formed visual hallucinations (silent children in the room), and spontaneous parkinsonism (mask-like facies, cogwheel rigidity). The timeline, with cognitive decline and parkinsonism occurring within 1 year of each other, differentiates it from Parkinson disease dementia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the timeline and core symptoms of the patient's cognitive decline.
The patient has a 9-month history of executive dysfunction, 6 months of REM sleep behavior disorder, and 3 months of recurrent visual hallucinations.
Establishing the sequence and nature of symptoms is crucial for differentiating primary neurocognitive disorder subtypes.
2
Evaluate the physical examination findings.
The exam reveals mask-like facies and cogwheel rigidity (catch-and-release pattern), which are distinct signs of parkinsonism.
The presence of spontaneous parkinsonism, combined with the core symptoms identified in Step 1, strongly suggests Dementia with Lewy bodies.
3
Rule out iatrogenic and comorbid conditions that could mimic the presentation.
Serotonin syndrome is ruled out due to the timeline (symptoms predating linezolid) and lack of hyperreflexia/clonus. Medication-induced mania is unlikely given the absence of classic manic symptoms. Thyroid dysfunction is present (central hypothyroidism) but does not fully explain the classic triad of visual hallucinations, REM sleep disorder, and parkinsonism.
To confirm the primary neurocognitive diagnosis, acute delirium or substance-induced states must be excluded as the primary etiology.

Key Concept

Diagnosis of Dementia with Lewy bodies relies on identifying progressive cognitive decline alongside core features such as fluctuating cognition, recurrent visual hallucinations, REM sleep behavior disorder, and spontaneous parkinsonism.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 371Question →

A 32-year-old man is brought to the outpatient psychiatry clinic by his parents due to chronic behavioral changes. They report that their son has been behaving abnormally for the past 3 years. It began when he started claiming that national television news anchors were communicating with him through coded hand gestures. He also frequently converses with voices that no one else can hear. According to the parents, these beliefs and hallucinations have been continuously present since their onset. During this 3-year period, the patient experienced three distinct episodes of profound sadness, anhedonia, hypersomnia, and feelings of worthlessness. Each of these episodes lasted approximately 2 months and resolved spontaneously, with him returning to a normal mood. He is currently displaying a flat affect and reports that the news anchors are still sending him messages, but he denies any current sadness or changes in sleep, appetite, or energy. His medical history is unremarkable, and a urine toxicology screen is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Schizophrenia

Answer

Schizophrenia
The diagnosis is schizophrenia because the patient has had active psychotic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations) for greater than 6 months. While he has experienced major depressive episodes, they have not been present for the majority of the total duration of the active and residual portions of the illness (occurring for only 6 months out of a 36-month period). Furthermore, he demonstrates prominent psychotic symptoms in the absence of a mood episode, distinguishing it from a mood disorder with psychotic features.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the total duration of the primary psychotic symptoms.
The patient has experienced continuous delusions and hallucinations for 36 months (3 years).
Establishing the total timeline of psychosis is the first step in differentiating schizophrenia-spectrum disorders.
2
Assess the longitudinal relationship between mood episodes and psychotic symptoms.
Psychotic symptoms are present continuously, including times when the patient is completely euthymic.
This confirms that the psychosis is independent, ruling out a mood disorder with psychotic features (where psychosis occurs only during the mood episode).
3
Calculate the proportion of the illness course affected by mood episodes.
Mood episodes account for 6 months (three 2-month episodes) out of a 36-month total illness duration, which is approximately 17%.
To differentiate schizophrenia from schizoaffective disorder, the mood episodes must be present for the majority (greater than 50%) of the total illness duration. Since 17% is not the majority, the correct diagnosis is schizophrenia.

Key Concept

To diagnose schizoaffective disorder, symptoms of a major mood episode must be present for the majority of the total duration of the active and residual portions of the illness; otherwise, a diagnosis of schizophrenia with concurrent mood episodes is more appropriate.
Question 372Question →

A 27-year-old male civil engineer is brought to the psychiatric emergency service by his roommate. The patient has been isolating in his bedroom for the past month, sleeping over 14 hours a day, and neglecting his personal hygiene. During the interview, he exhibits profound psychomotor retardation and admits to active suicidal ideation with a plan to ingest household chemicals. His medical history is unremarkable. Upon review of his psychiatric history, his roommate reports that three years ago, the patient experienced a distinct three-week period during which he slept only two hours per night, spoke so rapidly he was nearly incomprehensible, and frantically wrote a 500-page manifesto believing he had independently solved major problems in quantum physics. The patient was hospitalized at that time but subsequently lost to follow-up. Vital signs and routine laboratory studies are within normal limits. Which of the following pharmacological interventions are appropriate for this patient's current presentation? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Initiate quetiapine monotherapy; Initiate lurasidone monotherapy

Answer

The appropriate next steps are to initiate quetiapine monotherapy or initiate lurasidone monotherapy.
The patient's history of a distinct period of decreased sleep, pressured speech, and grandiose delusions lasting three weeks meets the criteria for a manic episode, firmly establishing the diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. He is currently experiencing a severe bipolar depressive episode with active suicidal ideation. The standard of care for acute bipolar depression includes monotherapy with specific second-generation antipsychotics that have proven efficacy for the depressive phase of bipolar disorder, such as quetiapine, lurasidone, cariprazine, or lumateperone. These agents treat the depression without the significant risk of inducing mania.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current symptoms and past psychiatric history.
Current severe major depressive episode (hypersomnia, anhedonia, suicidal ideation). Past history of a distinct 3-week episode of decreased sleep, pressured speech, and grandiose delusions.
Establishing the correct longitudinal diagnosis is crucial before initiating psychiatric medications.
2
Determine the primary diagnosis.
The history of a manic episode establishes the diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. The current presentation is an acute bipolar depressive episode.
A single manic episode is sufficient to diagnose Bipolar I Disorder, which completely alters the treatment algorithm for subsequent depressive episodes.
3
Select appropriate pharmacological treatment for acute bipolar depression.
Quetiapine and lurasidone are identified as first-line FDA-approved monotherapies. Antidepressant monotherapy (fluoxetine) and dangerous combinations (fluoxetine + MAOI) are rejected.
Effective treatment for bipolar depression requires agents that lift mood without precipitating a manic switch. Certain second-generation antipsychotics possess these mood-stabilizing properties.

Key Concept

Diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder based on a prior manic episode, and treatment of acute bipolar depression using approved second-generation antipsychotics while avoiding antidepressant monotherapy.
Question 373Question →

A 26-year-old woman comes to the outpatient psychiatric clinic reporting severe anxiety, insomnia, and nightmares. Exactly three weeks ago, she was sexually assaulted by an acquaintance at a party. She has not disclosed the assault to anyone else and explicitly asks the physician not to notify law enforcement, stating she is not ready for an investigation. Since the incident, she has avoided social gatherings, feels constantly 'on edge,' and experiences distressing flashbacks. Her past medical history is significant for bipolar I disorder. Her current medications include lithium and tranylcypromine, the latter having been added two months ago for depressive symptoms. She asks if a medication like sertraline could be prescribed, as she has heard it is effective for trauma. Vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Recommend trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy and maintain patient confidentiality

Answer

Recommend trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy and maintain patient confidentiality.
The correct answer provides the appropriate first-line treatment for Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) while adhering to ethical guidelines. The patient's symptoms (intrusive memories, avoidance, hyperarousal, and negative mood) occurring exactly 3 weeks after a traumatic event meet the criteria for ASD, not Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (which requires symptoms lasting longer than 1 month). Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy is the primary treatment for ASD. Furthermore, as a competent adult, the patient's autonomy must be respected; sexual assault does not mandate reporting to law enforcement unless the patient consents or specific state exemptions apply (e.g., vulnerable populations).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the symptom timeline relative to the traumatic event.
The trauma occurred exactly 3 weeks ago, and symptoms have persisted since then.
Establishing the timeline is necessary to differentiate between Acute Stress Disorder (< 1 month) and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (≥ 1 month).
2
Evaluate the ethical obligations regarding the patient's request for confidentiality.
The patient is a competent adult who explicitly requested that law enforcement not be notified.
To determine if mandatory reporting laws apply. Mandatory reporting for sexual assault typically applies only to minors, the elderly, or vulnerable adults, not competent adults.
3
Assess the safety of the patient's pharmacological request.
The patient requested sertraline (an SSRI) but is currently taking tranylcypromine (an MAOI) and lithium (for bipolar I disorder).
To prevent fatal drug interactions (Serotonin Syndrome from MAOI + SSRI) and avoid destabilizing her bipolar disorder (manic switch from SSRI monotherapy).
4
Determine the most appropriate management based on the correct diagnosis and ethical constraints.
Trauma-focused CBT is recommended as the first-line treatment for Acute Stress Disorder, while strict confidentiality must be maintained.
This provides evidence-based care while adhering to ethical standards and avoiding pharmacological harm.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Stress Disorder requires recognizing the <1 month diagnostic timeline, providing trauma-focused CBT, and respecting the confidentiality of competent adult sexual assault survivors while carefully monitoring for psychiatric drug interactions.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 374Question →

A 78-year-old man with an 8-year history of Parkinson disease is brought to the geriatrics clinic by his daughter. Over the past 6 months, he has exhibited progressive memory loss, difficulty paying bills, and fluctuating attention. During the last 2 weeks, he has developed vivid, terrifying visual hallucinations of strangers in his bedroom, leading to severe agitation. His vital signs and physical examination are unchanged from his baseline. His current medications include carbidopa-levodopa, pramipexole, trihexyphenidyl, and omeprazole. The physician determines that a stepwise approach is required to manage his neuropsychiatric symptoms while attempting to preserve motor function.

Arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate sequential order, from the initial most necessary action to the final therapy of last resort.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is: 1) Evaluate for systemic causes of delirium, 2) Discontinue anticholinergics (trihexyphenidyl), 3) Taper dopamine agonists (pramipexole), 4) Initiate an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (rivastigmine), and 5) Initiate a targeted atypical antipsychotic (quetiapine/pimavanserin).
The algorithmic management of psychosis in Parkinson disease requires a stepwise approach that balances psychiatric symptom control with motor function preservation. Any subacute change in behavior must first prompt an evaluation for delirium (e.g., infections, metabolic disturbances). Once ruled out, the physician should incrementally simplify the medication regimen. Medications with the highest risk of neuropsychiatric side effects and lowest motor benefit are discontinued first: anticholinergics (trihexyphenidyl) > amantadine > MAO-B inhibitors > dopamine agonists (pramipexole) > COMT inhibitors. Carbidopa-levodopa is reduced last, only if absolutely necessary. If psychosis persists despite optimizing the regimen, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (rivastigmine) is often added, particularly if cognitive impairment (Parkinson disease dementia) is present. If symptoms remain severe and distressing, an atypical antipsychotic with low D2 affinity (quetiapine, clozapine) or a 5-HT2A inverse agonist (pimavanserin) is initiated as a last resort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate for systemic causes of delirium.
Identifies or excludes acute medical illnesses such as urinary tract infections or metabolic derangements.
Patients with underlying major neurocognitive disorders are highly susceptible to delirium. An acute change in mental status (over 2 weeks) mandates ruling out reversible medical causes before adjusting psychiatric or neurologic medications.
2
Simplify the antiparkinsonian regimen by discontinuing anticholinergics (trihexyphenidyl).
Removes the medication with the highest risk of causing confusion and hallucinations.
Anticholinergics impair cognition and frequently cause visual hallucinations in the elderly. They offer minimal motor benefit compared to levodopa and are the first agents to be stopped.
3
Taper and discontinue dopamine agonists (pramipexole).
Reduces dopaminergic overstimulation in the mesolimbic pathway.
If symptoms persist, other adjunctive medications (amantadine, MAO-B inhibitors, then dopamine agonists) are sequentially reduced. Dopamine agonists are notorious for causing psychosis and impulse control disorders.
4
Initiate an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (rivastigmine).
Enhances central cholinergic transmission.
In patients with Parkinson disease dementia experiencing psychosis, cholinesterase inhibitors can improve both cognitive function and behavioral symptoms without significantly worsening motor function.
5
Initiate a low-affinity D2 receptor antagonist (quetiapine) or a 5-HT2A inverse agonist (pimavanserin).
Directly targets psychotic symptoms as a therapy of last resort.
If psychosis remains severe and distressing despite the above measures, targeted antipsychotics are used. Typical antipsychotics and most atypicals (e.g., risperidone) are contraindicated due to severe worsening of parkinsonism.

Key Concept

Algorithmic management of psychosis and agitation in Parkinson Disease Dementia.
Question 375Question →

A 19-year-old college student is evaluated in the university health center. His roommate brought him in because he has been "acting strange" for the past two hours. The roommate notes that the patient has been laughing inappropriately, speaking slowly, and eating unusually large amounts of snack foods. The patient has no past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg, pulse of 118/min, and respirations of 14/min. Physical examination shows prominent conjunctival injection and a dry oral mucosa. Pupils are equal and reactive to light. Neurologic examination is unremarkable, and there is no nystagmus. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?

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Answer: Cannabis intoxication

Answer

Cannabis intoxication
The correct answer accurately identifies the classic presentation of acute cannabis (marijuana) intoxication. Patients typically present with a combination of behavioral changes (euphoria, inappropriate laughter, slowed time perception, delayed reaction times) and distinct physiologic signs. The most highly specific physical examination finding is prominent conjunctival injection (red eyes). Other common signs include tachycardia, dry mouth (xerostomia), and a significantly increased appetite (hyperphagia). The absence of nystagmus, pupillary changes, and aggression helps rule out other common substances of abuse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's behavioral presentation.
The patient exhibits inappropriate laughter, slow speech, and significantly increased appetite.
Identifying the behavioral changes helps narrow the differential diagnosis of substance use.
2
Evaluate the physical examination and vital signs.
The patient has tachycardia (118/min), prominent conjunctival injection (red eyes), and dry oral mucosa, without nystagmus or pupillary dilation.
Specific physical signs act as key differentiators between various toxidromes.
3
Synthesize the findings to determine the causative substance.
The combination of increased appetite, conjunctival injection, dry mouth, and tachycardia points directly to cannabis.
This is the classic physiologic and behavioral signature of acute marijuana use.

Key Concept

The diagnosis of acute cannabis intoxication is clinical and relies on recognizing signs such as conjunctival injection, tachycardia, increased appetite, and dry mouth.
Question 376Question →

A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his sister due to a 6-week history of profound fatigue, hypersomnia, and a 4-kg (9-lb) weight gain. He states he feels completely devoid of energy, struggles to get out of bed, and expresses unwarranted guilt over taking time off from his job as an accountant. His sister notes that three years ago, the patient experienced a highly unusual two-week period during which he slept only three hours a night, exhibited pressured speech, and impulsively emptied his savings account to invest in unproven cryptocurrency. He has no other medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory evaluation shows a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 2.1 µU/mL (normal: 0.5-5.0 µU/mL) and a normal free T4 level. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Quetiapine

Answer

The most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy is quetiapine, as the patient is experiencing a bipolar depressive episode.
The correct answer is quetiapine. This patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode, but his history of a distinct 2-week period of elevated energy, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and severe impulsivity indicates a past manic episode. Therefore, his correct diagnosis is Bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed phase. First-line treatments for bipolar depression include quetiapine, lurasidone, and the olanzapine-fluoxetine combination. These agents effectively target depressive symptoms without significantly increasing the risk of a manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the current symptom profile.
The patient has a 6-week history of fatigue, hypersomnia, weight gain, guilt, and low energy, which meets the criteria for a major depressive episode with atypical features.
Establishing the current affective state is the first step in psychiatric diagnosis.
2
Analyze the collateral history provided by the sister.
The patient had a distinct 2-week period of decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and severe impulsivity (emptying his savings).
All patients presenting with depression must be screened for past manic or hypomanic episodes to differentiate unipolar from bipolar depression.
3
Synthesize the timeline and severity to establish the primary diagnosis.
A history of at least one manic episode (lasting ≥1 week with marked impairment) establishes the diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder. The current presentation is a bipolar depressive episode.
Bipolar I disorder requires at least one manic episode; depressive episodes are common but not required for the diagnosis, though they often dominate the clinical course.
4
Select the appropriate pharmacotherapy.
First-line treatments for bipolar depression include quetiapine, lurasidone, or the olanzapine-fluoxetine combination.
These agents effectively target depressive symptoms without significantly increasing the risk of a manic switch, unlike SSRI monotherapy.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with a major depressive episode must be screened for a history of mania or hypomania to distinguish Bipolar Disorder from Major Depressive Disorder, as treatment pathways differ significantly.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 377Question →

An 18-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his older sister because he has been unable to stand up from the couch for the past two hours. Over the last 33 weeks, his sister notes he has been increasingly withdrawn, occasionally talking to people who are not present, and failing to show up for his part-time job. His medical history includes major depressive disorder, for which he has been taking fluoxetine for the past year.

On physical examination, the patient is lethargic but arousable. An erythematous, flaky rash is noted around his mouth and nares. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Heart rate is 105/min105/\text{min}, blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg112/70\text{ mm Hg}, and respiratory rate is 24/min24/\text{min}. Neurologic examination reveals symmetric 2/52/5 muscle strength in the lower extremities bilaterally, with absent patellar reflexes.

Laboratory results:
Na+Na^+: 140 mEq/L140\text{ mEq/L}
K+K^+: 1.8 mEq/L1.8\text{ mEq/L}
Cl−Cl^-: 115 mEq/L115\text{ mEq/L}
HCO3−HCO_3^-: 14 mEq/L14\text{ mEq/L}
BUNBUN: 10 mg/dL10\text{ mg/dL}
CrCr: 0.7 mg/dL0.7\text{ mg/dL}
TSHTSH: 1.8 μU/mL1.8\text{ }\mu\text{U/mL}
Urine toxicology screen: Negative for opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, PCP, and cannabis.

Arterial blood gas on room air:
pH: 7.227.22
PaCO2P_{a}CO_2: 36 mm Hg36\text{ mm Hg}
PaO2P_{a}O_2: 85 mm Hg85\text{ mm Hg}

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administer intravenous potassium chloride and continuously monitor respiratory status.

Answer

Administer intravenous potassium chloride and continuously monitor respiratory status.
This patient's presentation is classic for inhalant (specifically toluene) toxicity. The erythematous perioral rash ('huffer's rash'), lethargy, and negative standard urine toxicology screen in a young adult point to volatile solvent abuse. Toluene causes a Type 1 (distal) renal tubular acidosis, leading to severe potassium wasting and a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis. The profound hypokalemia (1.8 mEq/L1.8\text{ mEq/L}) is responsible for the patient's flaccid paralysis and absent reflexes. Using Winter's formula (1.5×14+8=291.5 \times 14 + 8 = 29), the expected PaCO2P_{a}CO_2 is 27−31 mm Hg27-31\text{ mm Hg}. The measured PaCO2P_{a}CO_2 of 36 mm Hg36\text{ mm Hg} reveals a superimposed respiratory acidosis, secondary to inhalant-induced CNS depression. Therefore, the most urgent interventions are replenishing potassium to prevent fatal arrhythmias and closely monitoring the airway due to impending respiratory failure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary toxidrome from the clinical clues.
The combination of an erythematous perioral rash ('huffer's rash'), central nervous system depression, and severe hypokalemia in an adolescent strongly indicates inhalant abuse, specifically toluene (found in paint thinner or glue).
Recognizing the specific substance of abuse is required to understand the systemic pathophysiology.
2
Analyze the basic metabolic panel and determine the primary acid-base disturbance.
The anion gap is calculated as Na+−(Cl−+HCO3−)=140−(115+14)=11Na^+ - (Cl^- + HCO_3^-) = 140 - (115 + 14) = 11, which is normal. The patient has a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis.
Toluene metabolism produces hippuric acid, which obligates potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a Type 1 (distal) renal tubular acidosis (RTA) characterized by normal anion gap acidosis and severe hypokalemia.
3
Evaluate the respiratory compensation using Winter's formula.
Expected PaCO2=1.5×[HCO3−]+8±2=1.5×14+8±2=29±2P_{a}CO_2 = 1.5 \times [HCO_3^-] + 8 \pm 2 = 1.5 \times 14 + 8 \pm 2 = 29 \pm 2. The expected range is 2727 to 31 mm Hg31\text{ mm Hg}.
To determine if the patient has a simple or mixed acid-base disorder.
4
Compare expected vs. measured PaCO2P_{a}CO_2.
The measured PaCO2P_{a}CO_2 is 36 mm Hg36\text{ mm Hg}, which is significantly higher than the expected maximum of 31 mm Hg31\text{ mm Hg}. This means there is a superimposed respiratory acidosis.
Despite being tachypneic (24/min24/\text{min}), the patient's central nervous system depression from the inhalant is preventing adequate ventilation to compensate for the metabolic acidosis.
5
Determine the most critical next step in management.
Intravenous potassium chloride administration and respiratory monitoring.
The patient's flaccid paralysis is due to life-threatening hypokalemia (1.8 mEq/L1.8\text{ mEq/L}), which can cause fatal arrhythmias. Concurrently, the uncompensated respiratory acidosis indicates impending respiratory failure requiring close airway monitoring.

Key Concept

Toluene (inhalant) toxicity presents with central nervous system depression, perioral rash, and Type 1 renal tubular acidosis causing a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis with profound hypokalemia. Mixed acid-base disorders often accompany severe intoxication.

Practice More

Review the criteria for distinguishing brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, and schizophrenia, as well as the formula for calculating Winter's formula.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 378Question →

A 68-year-old man is brought to the geriatric psychiatry clinic by his son for evaluation of worsening memory. The son reports that his father has been increasingly forgetful over the past 4 months, frequently missing appointments and neglecting to pay bills. The patient's wife passed away unexpectedly 6 months ago. Since her death, the patient has lost 5 kg (11 lbs), complains of waking up at 3:00 AM every morning and being unable to return to sleep, and has lost interest in his usual hobby of gardening. During the interview, the patient makes poor eye contact and appears apathetic. When asked about recent news events to test his memory, he immediately sighs and responds, "I just don't know, my memory is terrible." With significant encouragement and prompting, he is able to recall 2 out of 3 words after 5 minutes and correctly draw a clock. His physical and neurological examinations are unremarkable. Which of the following clinical features most strongly supports a diagnosis of major depressive disorder with cognitive impairment (pseudodementia) rather than Alzheimer disease in this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Tendency to highlight cognitive deficits and frequently answer "I don't know"

Answer

The tendency to highlight cognitive deficits and frequently answer "I don't know" during testing.
Patients with major depressive disorder can develop significant cognitive impairment, a condition often termed pseudodementia. A key distinguishing feature between pseudodementia and a true neurodegenerative dementia (such as Alzheimer disease) is the patient's attitude toward their cognitive decline. Patients with pseudodementia typically have a subacute symptom onset, maintain acute insight into their deficits, frequently complain about their memory loss, and exhibit poor effort on cognitive testing (often giving up easily and defaulting to "I don't know"). In contrast, patients with Alzheimer disease typically have an insidious onset, lack insight into their deficits (anosognosia), minimize their memory loss, and will often attempt to answer questions or confabulate rather than giving up. This patient's prominent complaints about his memory and tendency to say "I don't know" before performing well with encouragement strongly point to underlying depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's primary symptoms and timeline.
The patient has 4 months of memory loss, apathy, weight loss, and insomnia starting 2 months after the death of his wife.
Establishes a temporal relationship between a major psychosocial stressor (bereavement) and the subacute onset of cognitive and mood symptoms.
2
Analyze the patient's behavior during the cognitive assessment.
The patient complains about his poor memory, gives poor initial effort ("I don't know"), but performs adequately with encouragement.
Differentiates the lack of effort seen in depression from the genuine loss of cognitive capacity and lack of insight seen in true dementia.
3
Compare the findings against classic presentations of major neurocognitive disorder.
Alzheimer disease typically presents with insidious onset, lack of insight (anosognosia), and attempts to guess or confabulate when unable to answer.
Confirms that the patient's presentation aligns with pseudodementia rather than a primary neurodegenerative process.

Key Concept

Differentiating major depressive disorder with cognitive impairment (pseudodementia) from primary neurodegenerative dementias like Alzheimer disease.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 379Question →

A 19-year-old female is evaluated in the emergency department for severe generalized weakness and muscle cramps. Her roommate reports that the patient is heavily preoccupied with her body image and frequently goes to the bathroom immediately after meals. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg and a heart rate of 98/min. Physical examination reveals bilateral parotid gland enlargement, dry mucous membranes, and calluses on the dorsum of her right hand. Which of the following sets of laboratory abnormalities is most likely to be found in this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and metabolic alkalosis

Answer

Hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and metabolic alkalosis
The correct answer accurately reflects the pathophysiology of repeated self-induced vomiting. The patient's clinical presentation, including Russell sign (calluses on the knuckles) and parotid gland enlargement, strongly indicates purging via vomiting. Emesis results in the loss of gastric hydrochloric acid (HCl), causing hypochloremia and primary metabolic alkalosis. Additionally, the resulting volume depletion stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which increases urinary potassium excretion in order to reabsorb sodium, leading to significant hypokalemia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's underlying condition based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has signs of self-induced vomiting (Russell sign, parotid enlargement) suggesting an eating disorder with purging behavior.
Parotid gland hypertrophy and calluses on the dorsum of the hand (Russell sign) are classic physical findings of frequent self-induced vomiting.
2
Determine the physiological consequences of frequent self-induced vomiting.
Vomiting causes a significant loss of fluid, hydrogen ions, and chloride ions from the stomach.
Gastric fluid is rich in hydrochloric acid (HCl).
3
Predict the resulting electrolyte and acid-base disturbances.
The loss of HCl leads to hypochloremia and metabolic alkalosis. Subsequent volume depletion activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to renal potassium wasting and hypokalemia.
Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption at the expense of potassium and hydrogen ion excretion, exacerbating both the hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.

Key Concept

Patients with eating disorders who engage in self-induced vomiting characteristically develop a hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.
Question 380Question →

A 6868-year-old man is brought to the geriatric clinic by his daughter for a follow-up evaluation. For the past 33 months, he has experienced profound sadness, anhedonia, early morning awakenings, and a 66-kg (1313-lb) weight loss. Three weeks ago, he began stating that his "stomach has turned to dust" and now frequently refuses to eat.

Three weeks ago, his primary care physician diagnosed a major depressive episode and prescribed citalopram. The patient took it for 1414 days but stopped it entirely 77 days ago because "it wasn't doing anything." His past medical history includes severe osteoarthritis, for which he takes daily tramadol.

His daughter privately reports that when the patient was 3232 years old, he had a distinct 66-week period where he slept only 22 hours a night, exhibited pressured speech, and impulsively bought two boats, which led to a brief psychiatric hospitalization.

Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory results show:
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 1.21.2 μ\mu U/mL (normal: 0.40.4–4.04.0 μ\mu U/mL)
- Free thyroxine (T4): 0.50.5 ng/dL (normal: 0.90.9–2.42.4 ng/dL)

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to initiate quetiapine to treat bipolar depression with psychotic features.
The correct answer is to initiate quetiapine. This patient presents with a severe depressive episode characterized by melancholic and psychotic features (nihilistic delusions). However, his remote history of an episode involving decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, and hospitalization meets the criteria for a manic episode. Therefore, his true diagnosis is Bipolar I disorder, currently in a severe depressive episode. First-line treatments for bipolar depression that also effectively target psychotic symptoms include atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine or lurasidone.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current psychiatric presentation.
The patient meets criteria for a major depressive episode with psychotic features (nihilistic delusions, specifically Cotard's syndrome).
This establishes the severity of the current episode and the need to target both mood and psychosis.
2
Evaluate the patient's psychiatric history.
The history of a manic episode (decreased sleep, impulsivity, hospitalization at age 3232) changes the primary diagnosis from Major Depressive Disorder to Bipolar I Disorder.
A single manic episode is sufficient to diagnose Bipolar I Disorder, fundamentally altering the pharmacologic approach to depressive episodes.
3
Assess the pharmacological context and laboratory findings.
The patient prematurely stopped citalopram (which was actually protective against a manic switch), takes tramadol (serotonergic risk), and has central hypothyroidism (normal TSH, low T4).
This rules out resuming SSRIs, initiating MAOIs (due to drug interactions), and treating for primary hypothyroidism.
4
Select the optimal treatment for the established diagnosis.
Quetiapine is selected as it is FDA-approved for bipolar depression and provides antipsychotic coverage.
It treats both the bipolar depression and the psychotic features without the risk of antidepressant-induced mania.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with a major depressive episode must be meticulously screened for a history of mania; if present, the diagnosis is Bipolar Disorder, and antidepressant monotherapy should be avoided in favor of agents like quetiapine, lurasidone, or lithium.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
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