Psychiatry

814 questions

Question 601Question →

Match each pharmacologic agent used in the maintenance treatment of bipolar disorder with its characteristic adverse effect profile and associated monitoring requirements.

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Items

Lithium
Valproate
Lamotrigine
Olanzapine

Matches

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Answer

Lithium matches parathyroid/renal/Ebstein anomaly; Valproate matches PCOS-like symptoms/thrombocytopenia/neural tube defects; Lamotrigine matches severe mucocutaneous reactions/slow titration; Olanzapine matches metabolic syndrome risk.
Each maintenance medication for bipolar disorder has a distinct adverse effect profile that dictates specific clinical monitoring. Lithium requires monitoring of thyroid and renal function, valproate requires liver function and platelet monitoring, olanzapine requires metabolic parameter tracking, and lamotrigine requires careful clinical observation for rash during initiation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the adverse effect profile and teratogenic risk described for Lithium.
Matches the description of hypercalcemia, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and Ebstein anomaly.
Lithium affects calcium metabolism, interferes with antidiuretic hormone action in the collecting duct, and is a known teratogen affecting the fetal heart.
2
Evaluate the adverse effect profile and teratogenic risk described for Valproate.
Matches the description of PCOS-like symptoms, dose-related thrombocytopenia, hepatotoxicity, and neural tube defects.
Valproate can cause hyperandrogenism, bone marrow suppression, liver damage, and interferes with folate metabolism.
3
Evaluate the side effect profile of Lamotrigine.
Matches the description emphasizing a slow titration to avoid Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Lamotrigine carries a black box warning for serious rashes, necessitating a strict titration schedule; it is well-tolerated metabolically.
4
Evaluate the side effect profile of Olanzapine.
Matches the high risk for significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome.
Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic with significant metabolic side effects, requiring regular monitoring.

Key Concept

Adverse effects and monitoring of mood stabilizers and antipsychotics in bipolar disorder
Question 602Question →

A 2323-year-old woman presents to the outpatient psychiatric clinic with a 22-month history of profound sadness, fatigue, and social withdrawal. She reports sleeping up to 1414 hours a day and experiencing a strong craving for carbohydrate-rich foods, leading to a 55-kg (1111-lb) weight gain. She states her arms and legs frequently feel "so heavy, it is as if my bones have turned to solid stone." Despite her depressed mood, she notes that she felt briefly happy and energized last week when she received a good grade on an exam, though the low mood quickly returned. She also reports occasionally hearing a voice calling her name just as she is drifting off to sleep. She has no chronic medical conditions. Vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory studies reveal a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 1.8 \muU/mL1.8 \text{ \mu U/mL} (normal 0.5−5.0 \muU/mL0.5-5.0 \text{ \mu U/mL}) and free thyroxine (T4) of 1.2 ng/dL1.2 \text{ ng/dL} (normal 0.9−1.7 ng/dL0.9-1.7 \text{ ng/dL}). She is currently not taking any medications. She requests an antidepressant to help her focus on her studies. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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Answer: Elicit a history of periods characterized by elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and impulsivity

Answer

Eliciting a history of periods characterized by elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and impulsivity.
The correct response describes the process of screening for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes. This patient is experiencing a major depressive episode with atypical features (mood reactivity, hypersomnia, weight gain, leaden paralysis). Atypical features are highly prevalent in patients with bipolar depression. According to standard psychiatric guidelines, clinicians must explicitly rule out a lifetime history of mania or hypomania before initiating antidepressant monotherapy in any patient presenting with depression. Failure to do so can precipitate a manic switch, which is a psychiatric emergency.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits depressed mood, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, leaden paralysis (heavy limbs), and mood reactivity (brightening of mood in response to positive events).
Identifying the specific symptom cluster is necessary to classify the depressive subtype.
2
Establish the specific psychiatric syndrome.
The symptoms fulfill the DSM-5 criteria for a major depressive episode with atypical features.
Atypical features have distinct clinical implications, particularly a strong association with bipolar disorder.
3
Evaluate the reported hallucinations and laboratory findings.
The hallucinations occur only while falling asleep (hypnagogic) and are a normal physiological variant, ruling out a primary psychotic disorder. The TSH and T4 levels are normal, ruling out thyroid dysfunction.
It is necessary to exclude medical causes of depression and comorbid primary psychotic disorders before finalizing the management plan.
4
Determine the safest next step in management.
Before starting any antidepressant therapy, the clinician must screen for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes.
Prescribing an antidepressant (like an SSRI) to a patient with unrecognized bipolar disorder can precipitate a severe manic episode. Screening is mandatory.

Key Concept

Prior to initiating antidepressant therapy for a major depressive episode, clinicians must screen for a lifetime history of manic or hypomanic episodes to rule out bipolar disorder and prevent antidepressant-induced mania.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 603Question →

Emergency medical services arrive at the hospital with an unresponsive individual found in a public transit station. Initial assessment reveals a respiratory rate of 4 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 82% on room air, and miotic pupils. Track marks are visible on the patient's antecubital fossae. The clinical team must manage the patient from acute presentation through stabilization and eventual hospital discharge. Arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for this patient.

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate respiratory resuscitation with naloxone, followed by observation for recurrent sedation, waiting for the onset of withdrawal symptoms, inducing buprenorphine therapy, and finally providing a take-home naloxone kit upon discharge.
The clinical sequence must follow the physiological realities of opioid overdose and pharmacotherapy. Life-saving ventilation restoration via naloxone is step one. Because naloxone wears off in 30-90 minutes, observation is step two. To transition to long-term buprenorphine, the patient must be in withdrawal to avoid precipitated withdrawal (step three and four). Finally, harm reduction (take-home naloxone) completes the hospital course (step five).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Address the immediate life-threatening emergency.
Intravenous naloxone reverses the opioid-induced respiratory depression.
The patient's respiratory rate is critically low (4/min) with hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention to prevent anoxic brain injury or cardiac arrest.
2
Ensure sustained respiratory stability.
The patient is monitored for recurrent sedation.
Naloxone's short half-life creates a high risk for the patient to slip back into respiratory depression if the ingested opioid outlasts the antagonist.
3
Prepare for medication-assisted treatment induction.
The clinical team waits for mild-to-moderate withdrawal symptoms.
Administering buprenorphine while full agonists are still bound to receptors will cause severe precipitated withdrawal.
4
Manage opioid use disorder chronically.
Sublingual buprenorphine is administered.
Buprenorphine relieves withdrawal, controls cravings, and stabilizes the patient for long-term recovery.
5
Execute safe discharge planning.
Take-home naloxone and counseling referrals are provided.
Harm reduction strategies must be implemented prior to returning the patient to the community to mitigate future overdose risks.

Key Concept

Management of opioid use disorder requires a sequential approach: acute resuscitation with an antagonist (naloxone), observation due to pharmacokinetic mismatches, proper timing of partial agonist induction (buprenorphine) to avoid precipitated withdrawal, and harm reduction at discharge.
Question 604Question →

A 42-year-old man is evaluated in the psychiatric clinic for a six-week history of pervasive sadness, insomnia, low energy, and feelings of worthlessness. He frequently thinks about death but has no active suicidal plan. Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Routine laboratory studies, including thyroid function tests, are within normal limits. During the interview, the patient mentions that in his late twenties, he had a one-week period where he slept only two hours a night, felt extremely energetic, and took out multiple unapproved bank loans for a 'revolutionary' business idea. He was hospitalized during that episode. He is currently taking no medications. What is the most appropriate next step in pharmacological management for this patient?

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Answer: Quetiapine

Answer

Quetiapine
The patient's current presentation of severe depression, combined with a history of a manic episode requiring hospitalization (decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, impulsivity), solidifies the diagnosis of bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed episode. The treatment of bipolar depression differs significantly from unipolar depression. First-line pharmacological options for acute bipolar depression include second-generation antipsychotics such as quetiapine, lurasidone, and cariprazine, as well as the olanzapine-fluoxetine combination. Quetiapine has proven efficacy in rapidly alleviating depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder without carrying a high risk of inducing mania.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's current clinical syndrome.
Major depressive episode.
The patient presents with a six-week history of depressed mood, insomnia, anergia, and passive suicidal ideation.
2
Evaluate the past psychiatric history for prior mood episodes.
History of a severe manic episode requiring hospitalization.
The patient experienced a one-week period of decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, and impulsive behavior leading to hospitalization, which definitively meets criteria for a manic episode.
3
Select the most appropriate pharmacological treatment based on the combined history.
Quetiapine is selected.
The diagnosis is bipolar I disorder, current episode depressed. Quetiapine is a first-line monotherapy for acute bipolar depression that avoids the risk of inducing a manic switch.

Key Concept

Pharmacological management of acute bipolar depression
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 605Question →

A 26-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking assistance with smoking cessation. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for the past 6 years. The patient also reports feeling "down" and fatigued for the past 6 months. Her BMI is 21 kg/m^2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is notable for mild bilateral parotid gland enlargement and calluses on the dorsum of her right hand. Upon further questioning, the patient admits to episodes of eating abnormally large quantities of food followed by self-induced vomiting 3 to 4 times per week over the past year. Laboratory studies show a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L and a serum chloride of 94 mEq/L. The physician discusses pharmacological options for smoking cessation and considers prescribing bupropion. Which of the following best explains why bupropion is contraindicated in this patient?

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Answer: It significantly lowers the seizure threshold in the setting of frequent purging.

Answer

Bupropion is contraindicated because it significantly lowers the seizure threshold, placing patients with eating disorders (who often have electrolyte imbalances from purging) at high risk for seizures.
The correct option correctly identifies that bupropion lowers the seizure threshold. In a patient with bulimia nervosa, frequent purging leads to electrolyte abnormalities, such as hypokalemia (which this patient has), which independently lower the seizure threshold. Administering bupropion to such a patient significantly increases the risk of generalized tonic-clonic seizures, making it an absolute contraindication.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the underlying psychiatric condition based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has a normal BMI, parotid gland enlargement, calluses on the dorsum of the hand (Russell sign), hypokalemia, and a history of binge eating with self-induced vomiting. This confirms a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa.
Accurate identification of the underlying disorder is a prerequisite for safe pharmacological management.
2
Evaluate the pharmacological properties and contraindications of the considered medication (bupropion).
Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) effective for smoking cessation and depression. However, its major adverse effect is a dose-dependent lowering of the seizure threshold.
Recognizing a drug's absolute contraindications prevents iatrogenic harm.
3
Correlate the patient's diagnosis with the medication's adverse effect profile.
Patients with bulimia nervosa frequently develop electrolyte abnormalities (like the hypokalemia seen here) that independently lower the seizure threshold. Adding bupropion creates a synergistic and unacceptable risk for generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
This physiological overlap makes bupropion absolutely contraindicated in all patients with a current or prior diagnosis of bulimia nervosa or anorexia nervosa.

Key Concept

Bupropion is absolutely contraindicated in patients with bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa because it lowers the seizure threshold, which is particularly dangerous in patients who may already have a lowered threshold due to purging-induced electrolyte abnormalities.

Alternative Method

When evaluating any psychiatric medication request in a patient with a normal or low BMI presenting with parotid swelling or dental erosions, always immediately rule out medications that lower the seizure threshold (bupropion) or prolong the QTc interval, as purging-induced hypokalemia exacerbates both risks.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 606Question →

A 31-year-old woman, G1P1, comes to the outpatient clinic 6 weeks after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. She is accompanied by her husband, who is concerned about her behavior. For the past 4 weeks, she has experienced profound sadness, frequent crying spells, and a pervasive sense of guilt regarding her parenting. She reports waking up at 3 AM daily and being unable to return to sleep, even when her infant is sleeping. She describes her mood as consistently worse in the mornings and notes no improvement in her mood even when playing with her newborn or when her parents visit. She lacks the energy to perform basic household tasks. She denies suicidal ideation or thoughts of harming the infant. She recalls experiencing a period of "severe depression" in her early twenties that lasted for several months but resolved without treatment. She is currently breastfeeding and takes prenatal vitamins. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit substances. Vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation or management of this patient?

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Answer: Inquire about a history of persistently elevated mood and decreased need for sleep

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to inquire about a history of persistently elevated mood and decreased need for sleep to screen for bipolar disorder before initiating antidepressant therapy.
The correct action is to inquire about a history of persistently elevated mood and decreased need for sleep. This patient presents with a major depressive episode (MDE) with melancholic features (early morning awakenings, worse mood in the morning, lack of mood reactivity) in the postpartum period. While she requires treatment, the critical next step before prescribing any antidepressant is to screen for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes. A significant proportion of patients presenting with an MDE actually have bipolar disorder. Initiating antidepressant monotherapy (such as an SSRI) in a patient with unrecognized bipolar disorder carries a high risk of precipitating a manic switch. Her history of an untreated 'severe depression' in her early twenties further increases her risk for bipolar disorder.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation.
The patient meets the criteria for a major depressive episode with melancholic features, occurring in the postpartum period.
Accurate syndrome identification is required to guide further evaluation and treatment.
2
Evaluate the differential diagnosis for postpartum mood changes.
The duration (4 weeks) and severity of symptoms, including neurovegetative signs, rule out self-limited postpartum blues. The fulfillment of major depressive episode criteria rules out adjustment disorder.
Differentiating between normal physiologic changes and pathologic mood disorders ensures appropriate intervention.
3
Determine the necessary safety and diagnostic steps before treatment.
The patient must be screened for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes.
Initiating antidepressant monotherapy in a patient with a history of bipolar disorder (which is strongly suggested by her prior severe depressive episode in her twenties) risks precipitating a manic switch.

Key Concept

Before initiating antidepressant therapy for a major depressive episode, clinicians must screen for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes to prevent antidepressant-induced mania, particularly in patients presenting with a history of untreated depression.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 607Question →

An occupational health physician is reviewing the records of a 29-year-old woman currently hospitalized for psychiatric stabilization. A detailed collateral history is obtained from her husband. The patient first experienced psychiatric symptoms 5 years ago, characterized by a 2-month period of profound sadness, anhedonia, and severe insomnia, accompanied by auditory hallucinations commanding her to harm herself. She received treatment and was completely asymptomatic for the next two years. Three years ago, she developed a persistent belief that her neighbors were surveilling her and began hearing two voices conversing about her behavior. She has experienced these psychotic symptoms continuously for the last 36 months. However, during this 36-month period, her mood, energy, and sleep were entirely normal until 2 weeks ago. Over the past 2 weeks, she abruptly developed severe euphoria, pressured speech, and a decreased need for sleep, while still experiencing the paranoia and auditory hallucinations. Medical workup and urine toxicology are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most accurate diagnosis?

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Answer: Schizophrenia

Answer

Schizophrenia
The correct diagnosis is Schizophrenia. This patient has a lifetime history of psychotic symptoms (hallucinations, delusions) meeting Criterion A for schizophrenia, as well as distinct major mood episodes (depression and mania). A common pitfall is to automatically diagnose schizoaffective disorder when a patient has a history of both mood episodes and periods of pure psychosis lasting >2>2 weeks. However, DSM-5 Criterion C for schizoaffective disorder explicitly requires that symptoms meeting the criteria for a major mood episode be present for the *majority* of the total duration of the active and residual portions of the illness. In this case, the patient has 3838 total months of active psychotic illness, but only 2.52.5 total months of mood episodes. Because the mood symptoms are present for a minority of the illness duration, the diagnosis defaults to schizophrenia (with superimposed mood episodes).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the total duration of the active and residual portions of the psychotic illness.
The patient had 22 months of psychosis initially, followed by a continuous 3636-month period, yielding a total active illness duration of 3838 months.
To evaluate diagnostic criteria for schizoaffective disorder, the denominator (total illness duration) must first be established.
2
Identify the total duration of major mood episodes.
The patient had 22 months of major depression and 0.50.5 months (22 weeks) of mania, yielding a total of 2.52.5 months of mood symptoms.
The numerator (duration of mood episodes) is required to determine the proportion of the illness accompanied by mood symptoms.
3
Compare the duration of mood episodes to the total duration of the psychotic illness.
The mood episodes (2.52.5 months) represent a small minority (<10%<10\%) of the total illness duration (3838 months).
DSM-5 Criterion C for schizoaffective disorder requires mood symptoms to be present for the majority (>50%>50\%) of the total illness duration.
4
Determine the correct diagnosis based on the timeline findings.
Because the criterion for the predominance of mood symptoms is not met, the diagnosis defaults to Schizophrenia.
Periods of pure psychosis lasting ≥2\geq 2 weeks rule out bipolar disorder with psychotic features, while the lack of predominant mood symptoms over the illness course rules out schizoaffective disorder.

Key Concept

To diagnose schizoaffective disorder, mood symptoms must be present for the majority of the total duration of the active and residual portions of the illness; otherwise, the diagnosis remains schizophrenia.
Question 608Question →

A 30-month-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents due to concerns regarding his language development. The parents report that he uses approximately 10 single words and does not combine them into phrases. When he desires a snack, he physically guides his father's hand to the pantry rather than pointing or vocalizing his request. He rarely makes eye contact when his name is called. The parents also note that he becomes severely agitated and inconsolable if his daily routine is altered, such as taking a different driving route to the grocery store. On physical examination, the boy is able to jump in place, walk up stairs while holding the handrail, and stack a tower of seven blocks. A comprehensive audiology evaluation performed last week revealed normal hearing bilaterally. Based on the patient's presentation, which of the following statements regarding his developmental status and management are accurate? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

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Answer: The patient's deficits in social communication and his restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior are highly characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorder.; Early intervention services focusing on behavioral therapies and speech-language pathology should be initiated as the primary management strategy.; The patient's gross motor achievements, including jumping in place and stair climbing, are age-appropriate developmental milestones.

Answer

The correct statements recognize that the patient has core symptoms of Autism Spectrum Disorder, that early behavioral and speech interventions are indicated, and that his gross motor milestones are currently age-appropriate.
The patient displays classic signs of Autism Spectrum Disorder, which include deficits in social reciprocity (poor eye contact), impaired nonverbal communication (using a parent's hand instead of pointing), and an insistence on sameness (inconsolable agitation with minor routine changes). Furthermore, his motor skills are completely intact; jumping in place, walking up stairs, and stacking a 7-block tower are normal, age-appropriate milestones for a 30-month-old child. Because early intervention significantly improves long-term outcomes, prompt initiation of comprehensive behavioral therapies and speech-language pathology is the standard of care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's language and social development.
The patient exhibits severe expressive language delay (10 words at 30 months) and significant social deficits (lack of joint attention, poor eye contact).
Identifying specific deficits helps differentiate global developmental delay from domain-specific neurodevelopmental disorders.
2
Evaluate the patient's motor development.
The patient's gross motor skills (jumping in place, stair climbing) and fine motor skills (7-block tower) are on track for a 30-month-old.
Intact motor development alongside severe language/social deficits points away from a global developmental delay.
3
Synthesize the clinical findings with diagnostic criteria.
The combination of social communication deficits and restricted, repetitive behaviors (routine agitation) in the setting of normal hearing and normal motor skills confirms Autism Spectrum Disorder.
Diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder relies on observing these core clinical deficits during the early developmental period.
4
Determine the most appropriate management.
Immediate referral for early intervention, including applied behavior analysis and speech therapy, is required.
Early, intensive interventions significantly improve long-term functional and communicative outcomes.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and management of Autism Spectrum Disorder, and differentiation of normal versus delayed pediatric developmental milestones.
Question 609Question →

Evaluate the concise patient vignettes below and link each to the most accurate DSM-5 psychiatric classification.

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Items

A young adult with a normal BMI reports weekly episodes of consuming unusually large quantities of food with a sense of lost control, followed by self-directed laxative use.
An adult with persistent, diffuse joint aches and abdominal discomfort who devotes several hours daily to researching the symptoms, resulting in significant functional impairment.
A healthcare worker presenting with recurrent polymicrobial bacteremia, subsequently found to have concealed syringes of contaminated material in their hospital room belongings.
An adolescent developing abrupt, bilateral lower extremity paralysis immediately following a severe psychosocial stressor, with intact reflexes and completely normal neuroimaging.
A middle-aged adult who repeatedly requests advanced imaging, convinced they harbor a malignant tumor despite lacking any significant physical symptoms or abnormal laboratory findings.

Matches

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Answer

Vignette 1 matches Bulimia nervosa; Vignette 2 matches Somatic symptom disorder; Vignette 3 matches Factitious disorder; Vignette 4 matches Functional neurological symptom disorder; Vignette 5 matches Illness anxiety disorder.
Each vignette contains distinct, diagnostic features according to DSM-5 criteria: binge/purge cycles at normal weight (Bulimia), significant physical symptoms with excessive worry (Somatic Symptom), fear of disease without physical symptoms (Illness Anxiety), intentional disease simulation for primary gain (Factitious), and incompatible neurological signs (Functional Neurological).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Vignette 1 for eating disorder pathology.
Identified binge eating and compensatory laxative use in a normal-weight patient.
Differentiates bulimia nervosa from anorexia nervosa, which requires significantly low body weight.
2
Distinguish between Vignette 2 and Vignette 5 to separate somatic symptom disorder from illness anxiety disorder.
Vignette 2 involves actual physical symptoms (joint aches), whereas Vignette 5 involves only the fear of disease without physical symptoms.
The presence or absence of significant somatic symptoms is the primary distinguishing factor between these two diagnoses.
3
Evaluate Vignette 3 for deceptive behavior.
Patient is intentionally causing polymicrobial infection.
Self-induction of illness for primary gain (sick role) confirms factitious disorder, differentiating it from malingering (secondary gain).
4
Assess Vignette 4 for neurological presentation.
Incompatible neurological deficits following acute stress.
Classic presentation of functional neurological symptom disorder, previously known as conversion disorder.

Key Concept

Accurate differentiation of the somatic symptom spectrum relies on identifying the primary driver: actual symptoms causing distress, fear of disease without symptoms, intentional deception for sick role, or incompatible neurological deficits.
Question 610Question →

A psychiatric consult service is reviewing the charts of four newly evaluated patients who present with prominent depressive symptoms. Each patient's presentation requires a distinct pharmacological or procedural approach. Match each patient's clinical profile with the most appropriate next step in management or treatment strategy.

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Items

52-year-old male with a 4-week history of profound sadness, anhedonia, and the fixed false belief that he is single-handedly responsible for an impending global financial collapse.
26-year-old female with a 6-week history of severe low mood, hypersomnia, weight gain, and extreme sensitivity to interpersonal rejection. She reports her limbs feel 'heavy like lead'.
34-year-old female with major depressive disorder who reports persistent daytime fatigue and poor concentration despite 8 weeks of adherence to maximum-dose fluoxetine. She has no history of seizures or eating disorders.
21-year-old male evaluated for severe depressive symptoms. His medical record reveals a psychiatric hospitalization two years ago for acute agitation, grandiosity, and a significantly decreased need for sleep.

Matches

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Answer

The clinical profiles map to major depressive disorder (MDD) with psychotic features, MDD with atypical features, SSRI-resistant MDD requiring augmentation, and bipolar I disorder currently in a depressive episode, respectively.
Matching these clinical profiles requires correctly identifying specific depressive disorder subtypes and bipolar depression, each of which has distinct evidence-based pharmacological guidelines that deviate from simple SSRI monotherapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first patient's presentation.
Identified mood-congruent delusions (responsibility for global collapse) complicating MDD.
Recognizing psychotic features dictates the need for combined antidepressant and antipsychotic therapy, or ECT.
2
Analyze the second patient's presentation.
Identified reverse vegetative symptoms (hypersomnia, weight gain) and leaden paralysis.
These define MDD with atypical features, which responds well to SSRIs initially, with MAOIs reserved for refractory cases.
3
Analyze the third patient's presentation.
Identified a partial response to optimized SSRI therapy with residual fatigue and cognitive slowing.
Residual symptoms of fatigue and low energy are effectively targeted by augmenting the regimen with a dopamine/norepinephrine-promoting agent like bupropion.
4
Analyze the fourth patient's presentation.
Identified current depressive symptoms in the context of a past manic episode.
A history of mania changes the diagnosis to bipolar depression, which necessitates mood stabilizers and absolute avoidance of antidepressant monotherapy.

Key Concept

Tailoring pharmacotherapy and interventions for specific depressive disorder subtypes and related conditions.
Question 611Question →

Match each patient's clinical presentation with the most appropriate next step in management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 58-year-old man presents with a 4-week history of pervasive sadness, anhedonia, early morning awakenings, and a 10-lb weight loss. These symptoms began shortly after he suffered an uncomplicated acute myocardial infarction. He has no prior psychiatric history.
A 27-year-old woman complains of a 6-week history of severe depression, sleeping 12 hours a day, increased appetite, and feeling like her arms and legs are "made of lead." She casually mentions that during college, she had a 5-day episode where she felt euphoric, needed only 2 hours of sleep a night, and impulsively bought $5,000 worth of designer clothes.
A 32-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband 3 weeks after giving birth to a healthy term infant. She exhibits a severely depressed mood, psychomotor retardation, and tearfully confesses that she is hearing a voice telling her that her baby is demonically possessed and must be drowned.
A 35-year-old man with major depressive disorder has been treated with escitalopram 20 mg daily for the past 8 weeks. He reports his mood has improved and he is no longer tearful, but he continues to struggle significantly with low energy, poor concentration, and an inability to focus on his work.

Matches

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Answer

The post-MI patient requires sertraline; the bipolar II patient requires quetiapine; the postpartum psychotic patient requires inpatient admission; the partial SSRI responder with fatigue requires bupropion augmentation.
Each clinical presentation dictates a specific algorithmic path in managing depressive disorders. Cardiovascular safety dictates sertraline post-MI. A history of hypomania dictates bipolar-specific therapies like quetiapine and contraindicates SSRI monotherapy. Psychosis with risk of harm to a newborn dictates immediate inpatient admission. Residual fatigue on an SSRI dictates bupropion augmentation to target dopamine and norepinephrine.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the post-myocardial infarction patient's profile.
Identify uncomplicated major depressive disorder in the context of recent cardiac ischemia.
Cardiac safety is the primary concern when selecting an antidepressant in this population, making sertraline the safest choice.
2
Analyze the 27-year-old woman's profile.
Identify atypical depressive features along with a distinct past episode of hypomania (euphoria, decreased sleep need, impulsivity lasting 5 days).
Recognizing past hypomanic episodes is crucial to diagnose bipolar II disorder and avoid inappropriate, potentially harmful SSRI monotherapy.
3
Analyze the 32-year-old postpartum woman's profile.
Identify severe postpartum depression with psychotic features (command hallucinations to harm the baby).
This represents a psychiatric emergency with a high risk of infanticide, necessitating the highest level of care (inpatient admission) immediately.
4
Analyze the 35-year-old man's profile.
Identify a partial response to an optimized SSRI dose, with residual symptoms specifically in the domains of energy and concentration.
Targeting specific residual symptoms with complementary pharmacologic mechanisms (e.g., increasing norepinephrine and dopamine with bupropion) optimizes remission rates.

Key Concept

Individualizing the management of depressive disorders requires screening for bipolar disorder, assessing for medical comorbidities (e.g., recent myocardial infarction), recognizing psychiatric emergencies (e.g., psychosis with risk of harm), and tailoring pharmacotherapy to residual symptoms.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 612Question →

Match each patient's clinical presentation of an antipsychotic-associated complication to the most appropriate next step in pharmacological or clinical management.

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Items

A 24-year-old man presents with severe diaphoresis, hyperthermia, 'lead-pipe' muscle rigidity, and altered mental status one week after starting a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic.
A 35-year-old woman treated with a first-generation antipsychotic for five years develops involuntary, repetitive lip smacking, facial grimacing, and choreoathetoid movements of the tongue.
A 28-year-old man receiving treatment for refractory schizophrenia is found to have an absolute neutrophil count of 400/μL during routine laboratory monitoring.
A 42-year-old man acutely develops a painful, sustained upward deviation of the eyes and severe torticollis hours after receiving an intramuscular antipsychotic in the emergency department.
A 30-year-old woman taking an antipsychotic for schizoaffective disorder presents with new-onset bilateral galactorrhea, breast tenderness, and secondary amenorrhea.

Matches

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Answer

Each clinical presentation describes a unique antipsychotic-associated adverse effect that pairs with its definitive next step in management: NMS requires dantrolene/bromocriptine; Tardive Dyskinesia requires a VMAT2 inhibitor; Clozapine-induced agranulocytosis requires immediate drug cessation; Acute Dystonia requires an anticholinergic agent; and Hyperprolactinemia requires switching to a D2 partial agonist.
Each pair matches a classic clinical presentation of an antipsychotic side effect with its established standard of care: NMS is a life-threatening emergency requiring aggressive cooling and dantrolene or bromocriptine. Tardive Dyskinesia is managed by lowering the dose or adding a VMAT2 inhibitor. Clozapine-induced severe neutropenia demands immediate cessation of the drug. Acute Dystonia is rapidly reversed with intramuscular anticholinergics. Hyperprolactinemia is managed by switching to a prolactin-sparing agent such as aripiprazole.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the presentation with severe rigidity, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability.
Diagnosis is Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS).
Identifies a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate specific antidotes like dantrolene or bromocriptine.
2
Analyze the presentation with chronic involuntary mouth and tongue movements.
Diagnosis is Tardive Dyskinesia.
Points to chronic D2 blockade requiring a VMAT2 inhibitor or a switch to a lower-risk agent.
3
Analyze the presentation showing an ANC of 400/μL in a patient on treatment for refractory schizophrenia.
Diagnosis is clozapine-induced severe neutropenia/agranulocytosis.
Dictates immediate cessation of the drug and infection precautions.
4
Analyze the presentation with an acute oculogyric crisis and torticollis.
Diagnosis is Acute Dystonia.
Recognizes an acute extrapyramidal symptom requiring immediate anticholinergic treatment.
5
Analyze the presentation with galactorrhea and amenorrhea.
Diagnosis is antipsychotic-induced hyperprolactinemia.
Identifies an endocrine side effect best managed by switching to a D2 partial agonist like aripiprazole.

Key Concept

Management of antipsychotic adverse effects requires accurate identification of the clinical syndrome and targeted interventions: anticholinergics for acute dystonia, VMAT2 inhibitors for tardive dyskinesia, dantrolene/bromocriptine for NMS, and D2 partial agonists for hyperprolactinemia.
Question 613Question →

An emergency department physician evaluates a 29-year-old man who presents with a rapidly spreading, painful dermatologic eruption. The patient has a known psychiatric history of bipolar I disorder, for which he has been maintained on divalproex sodium for the past four years without any manic relapses. Six weeks ago, his outpatient psychiatrist prescribed an additional medication to address a severe, functionally impairing depressive episode. Upon physical examination, the patient's temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F). There is a widespread, tender, purpuric maculopapular rash exhibiting epidermal detachment when lateral pressure is applied. Erosions are visible on the buccal mucosa and bilateral conjunctivae. Which of the following prescribing oversights is the most likely cause of this patient's current presentation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Failure to halve the standard initial dosage and titration rate of the new medication

Answer

Failure to halve the standard initial dosage and titration rate of the new medication
The patient's presentation is classic for Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), a life-threatening mucocutaneous reaction characterized by fever, a purpuric maculopapular rash, mucosal erosions, and epidermal detachment (positive Nikolsky sign). The newly added medication for his bipolar depression is most likely lamotrigine. When lamotrigine is co-administered with divalproex sodium (valproate), a critical pharmacokinetic interaction occurs. Valproate is a potent inhibitor of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT), the primary enzyme responsible for lamotrigine metabolism. This inhibition effectively doubles the half-life of lamotrigine, significantly elevating its serum concentration and drastically increasing the risk of SJS. To mitigate this risk, standard psychiatric guidelines mandate that the starting dose and titration rate of lamotrigine be reduced by 50% when added to a valproate regimen. The failure to make this dosage adjustment is the oversight that precipitated this patient's condition.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's acute dermatologic complication based on the physical examination.
The patient has Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), indicated by fever, a purpuric rash, mucosal erosions, and a positive Nikolsky sign (epidermal detachment with lateral pressure).
Recognizing this life-threatening drug reaction is the first step in determining which pharmacological interaction occurred.
2
Determine the most likely medication added for the patient's bipolar depression.
Lamotrigine is a first-line treatment for bipolar depression and is strongly associated with the development of SJS, especially when titrated too rapidly.
Identifying the new drug allows for the analysis of drug-drug interactions with the patient's baseline regimen.
3
Analyze the pharmacokinetic interaction between the baseline mood stabilizer (divalproex sodium) and the new agent (lamotrigine).
Divalproex sodium (valproate) is a potent inhibitor of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT), the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing lamotrigine.
Inhibition of UGT doubles the half-life of lamotrigine, leading to rapid, toxic accumulation if standard dosing is used.
4
Identify the prescribing rule required to prevent this toxicity.
When lamotrigine is added to valproate, the initial starting dose and the subsequent titration rate of lamotrigine must be reduced by exactly 50%.
Failing to make this critical dosage adjustment is a common error that directly precipitates life-threatening cutaneous reactions.

Key Concept

Pharmacokinetic interaction between divalproex sodium (valproate) and lamotrigine via UGT inhibition, requiring a 50% dose reduction of lamotrigine to prevent Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 614Question →

A 22-year-old male college student is brought to the psychiatric emergency department by his parents due to severe depression. For the past four weeks, he has isolated himself in his room, slept up to 15 hours a day, eaten very little, and frequently expressed feelings of worthlessness. He admits to having passive thoughts of suicide but denies any active plan. Review of his medical record reveals a prior psychiatric hospitalization three months ago. During that admission, he presented with a 4-week history of sleeping only 2 hours per night, rapid and pressured speech, excessive spending, and experiencing auditory hallucinations of 'angels' telling him he was chosen for a divine mission. His symptoms resolved completely during that hospitalization with the temporary use of haloperidol, and he has not taken any medications since discharge. Vital signs are within normal limits, and the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

Initiate quetiapine
The patient has a history of a distinct period of abnormally increased energy, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and psychosis (grandiose hallucinations) lasting 4 weeks. This clearly meets the criteria for a manic episode, establishing the diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. His current presentation of profound low mood, hypersomnia, and suicidal ideation represents an acute major depressive episode. The treatment of acute bipolar depression requires agents specifically proven effective for this phase without inducing a manic switch. Quetiapine is a second-generation antipsychotic with strong clinical evidence and FDA approval for the treatment of acute bipolar depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current clinical presentation.
The patient is experiencing a severe major depressive episode characterized by hypersomnia, anhedonia, feelings of worthlessness, and suicidal ideation lasting for 4 weeks.
Establishing the current mood state is essential for guiding targeted pharmacotherapy.
2
Review the psychiatric history to establish the primary diagnosis.
The patient had a previous 4-week episode of a decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, impulsivity, and grandiose hallucinations.
A history of a distinct manic episode (abnormally elevated mood and energy lasting 1 week or more) establishes a definitive diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, even if psychotic features are present.
3
Select the appropriate evidence-based treatment for acute bipolar depression.
First-line treatments include atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine or lurasidone, or the anticonvulsant lamotrigine.
Traditional antidepressant monotherapy must be avoided in bipolar depression due to the severe risk of inducing a manic switch.

Key Concept

Bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed episode, is treated with medications specifically proven effective for bipolar depression (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone, lamotrigine). Traditional antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated due to the risk of a manic switch.
Question 615Question →

Paramedics arrive at the emergency department with a 2424-year-old male who was found severely agitated and disoriented outside a music festival. Bystanders reported seeing him consume a crystalline powder they believed to be "Molly" (MDMA) several hours prior. The patient's roommate, who accompanied him in the ambulance, notes that the patient has a history of major depressive disorder and recently began taking a daily medication prescribed through an online telehealth service.

Upon evaluation in the trauma bay, the patient is combative and profoundly confused. Vital signs demonstrate a temperature of 39.6∘C39.6^\circ\text{C} (103.3∘F103.3^\circ\text{F}), pulse of 142/min142/\text{min}, respiratory rate of 24/min24/\text{min}, and blood pressure of 175/105 mm Hg175/105\text{ mm Hg}. The physical examination is notable for excessive diaphoresis, bilateral pupillary dilation, and extreme muscle rigidity in the lower extremities accompanied by spontaneous ankle clonus.

Which of the following represents the most appropriate next step in patient care?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administer intravenous lorazepam

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to administer intravenous lorazepam.
The patient exhibits classic manifestations of Serotonin Syndrome, which is characterized by the triad of altered mental status, autonomic hyperactivity (fever, tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis), and neuromuscular abnormalities (hyperreflexia, clonus). This was precipitated by the synergistic serotonergic effect of MDMA (which increases presynaptic serotonin release) and a newly prescribed medication for depression (likely a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor). The most appropriate initial step in management is the administration of intravenous benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam. Benzodiazepines reduce agitation, blunt the hyperadrenergic response, and decrease muscle contractions, which is the primary mechanism for lowering body temperature in these patients. If symptoms are refractory to benzodiazepines and supportive care, cyproheptadine (a serotonin antagonist) can be administered.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's symptoms and vital signs.
The patient presents with hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypertension, altered mental status, diaphoresis, mydriasis, and marked hyperreflexia with ankle clonus.
Identifying the specific pattern of autonomic instability and neuromuscular hyperactivity is crucial for distinguishing between various toxidromes.
2
Incorporate the patient's history and medication exposures.
The ingestion of MDMA (a synthetic amphetamine that promotes serotonin release) combined with a newly prescribed antidepressant (likely an SSRI or MAOI) strongly supports a diagnosis of Serotonin Syndrome.
MDMA combined with other serotonergic agents classically triggers Serotonin Syndrome.
3
Determine the optimal acute management for the identified toxidrome.
The first-line therapy for Serotonin Syndrome focuses on supportive care and the administration of intravenous benzodiazepines.
Benzodiazepines safely mitigate the hyperadrenergic state, control agitation, and reduce the muscle rigidity that drives the dangerous hyperthermia.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and acute management of Serotonin Syndrome triggered by MDMA and antidepressants.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 616Question →

A 79-year-old hospitalized man with a history of mild vascular dementia develops acute-onset disorientation, visual hallucinations, and severe psychomotor agitation on his third evening following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He is shouting at the nursing staff, exhibiting a fluctuating level of consciousness, and repeatedly attempting to remove his peripheral intravenous catheter. Arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate clinical escalation sequence for treating this patient's acute behavioral disturbance.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence begins with non-pharmacological de-escalation and environmental optimization, followed by a medical evaluation for underlying triggers. If agitation persists and poses a severe safety risk, low-dose antipsychotics may be administered. Physical restraints are reserved as the absolute last resort.
The standard of care for acute delirium requires a stepwise escalation. First, ensure immediate safety through non-pharmacological means (sitters, reorientation). Second, identify the underlying cause (infection, hypoxia, pain). Third, use chemical restraints (antipsychotics) only if the patient remains a danger to themselves or others. Finally, utilize physical restraints strictly as a last resort, as they can worsen delirium and cause physical harm.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Implement non-pharmacological interventions.
De-escalate the patient verbally, optimize lighting, and assign a bedside sitter.
This is the safest initial step that avoids the adverse effects of medications while addressing the patient's immediate behavioral symptoms.
2
Conduct a focused medical evaluation.
Check vital signs, assess for pain, review recent medications, and look for signs of infection or retention.
Delirium is a manifestation of an underlying physiological disturbance that must be identified and corrected to resolve the acute confusion.
3
Consider pharmacological intervention (chemical restraint).
Administer a low-dose antipsychotic (e.g., haloperidol).
This is only appropriate if the patient remains severely agitated despite non-pharmacological measures and is at risk of harming themselves or others.
4
Consider physical restraints.
Apply soft wrist restraints as a temporary measure.
This is strictly the last resort due to high risks of injury, paradoxically worsened agitation, and ethical concerns, used only to prevent immediate life-threatening events like removing a breathing tube or necessary IV lines.

Key Concept

Clinical escalation pathway for the management of acute delirium and agitation
Question 617Question →

A busy metropolitan emergency department evaluates four patients presenting with varying signs of acute substance intoxication or withdrawal. Match each patient's clinical presentation with the most likely corresponding toxidrome or substance-related state.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Patient A: A 22-year-old presenting with a respiratory rate of 6/min, marked miosis, and absent bowel sounds.
Patient B: A 35-year-old brought in by police, demonstrating prominent horizontal and vertical nystagmus, aggressive behavior, and ataxia.
Patient C: A 42-year-old experiencing severe agitation, diaphoresis, tachycardia, mydriasis, and acute chest pain.
Patient D: A 50-year-old developing profound confusion, visual hallucinations, resting tremor, and autonomic hyperactivity on hospital day 3 following an elective surgery.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Patient A matches Opioid intoxication; Patient B matches Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication; Patient C matches Cocaine intoxication; Patient D matches Alcohol withdrawal (Delirium tremens).
Each patient's clinical vignette uniquely aligns with a specific substance toxidrome or withdrawal syndrome. Opioid overdose causes respiratory depression and miosis. PCP toxicity features aggressive behavior and prominent nystagmus. Cocaine causes profound sympathetic stimulation and coronary vasospasm. Delirium tremens occurs several days into abstinence and features hallucinations and autonomic instability.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation of Patient A.
Identified marked respiratory depression and miosis.
These findings represent the classic triad of opioid toxicity.
2
Analyze the clinical presentation of Patient B.
Identified multidirectional nystagmus and aggressive behavior.
Rotary or multidirectional nystagmus combined with aggression is the hallmark presentation of PCP intoxication.
3
Analyze the clinical presentation of Patient C.
Identified a sympathomimetic toxidrome with chest pain.
Cocaine blocks catecholamine reuptake, causing sympathetic hyperactivity and potentially triggering coronary vasospasm.
4
Analyze the clinical presentation of Patient D.
Identified late-onset delirium, hallucinations, and autonomic hyperactivity after hospital admission.
The timeline (day 3) and severe autonomic symptoms strongly indicate delirium tremens due to abrupt cessation of alcohol upon admission.

Key Concept

Recognition of specific toxidromes and withdrawal syndromes based on unique physical examination findings and clinical timelines.
Question 618Question →

A 26-year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for a two-month history of sudden, unpredictable episodes of overwhelming fear, palpitations, and a sensation of impending doom. These episodes reach their peak intensity within minutes and typically resolve after 15 to 20 minutes. Due to an intense fear of experiencing another episode in public, she has stopped using public transportation and avoids going to shopping malls. Her past psychiatric history is significant for a psychiatric hospitalization at age 21 for a severe manic episode involving grandiosity, rapid speech, and a decreased need for sleep. She was treated with a mood stabilizer at that time but discontinued the medication three years ago and has remained euthymic since. She also has a history of opioid use disorder and has been successfully maintained on buprenorphine-naloxone therapy for the past three years. Vital signs are within normal limits, and a recent comprehensive medical workup was unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer

Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy
The patient's presentation of recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by avoidance behavior is consistent with panic disorder and agoraphobia. First-line treatments for panic disorder include cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and antidepressants (specifically SSRIs or SNRIs). However, this patient has a history of a severe manic episode, confirming a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder. In patients with bipolar disorder who are not currently taking a mood stabilizer, antidepressant monotherapy is strictly contraindicated due to the high risk of precipitating a manic switch. Additionally, she is on buprenorphine-naloxone for opioid use disorder, which makes benzodiazepines highly dangerous due to the risk of synergistic respiratory depression. Therefore, CBT is the safest and most effective first-line treatment for this patient's panic disorder, avoiding polypharmacy and serious adverse effects.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
The patient experiences recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and agoraphobia, confirming a diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia.
Establishing the correct primary diagnosis is necessary to determine the appropriate evidence-based treatment pathways.
2
Evaluate the patient's psychiatric and medical history for contraindications to standard pharmacotherapy.
The history reveals unmedicated Bipolar I Disorder and Opioid Use Disorder treated with buprenorphine.
Comorbidities significantly alter the safety profile of first-line treatments for panic disorder.
3
Select the safest first-line treatment that avoids adverse drug interactions and psychiatric complications.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is selected over SSRIs (which risk manic switch) and benzodiazepines (which risk respiratory depression).
CBT provides effective, evidence-based treatment for panic disorder without the risks associated with polypharmacy in this complex patient.

Key Concept

Management of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia in the context of psychiatric and substance use comorbidities
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 619Question →

A 2121-year-old female university student is evaluated in the emergency department for severe muscle cramps, palpitations, and dizziness when standing. She says she has been overwhelmed by her coursework and admits to having episodes where she eats excessively large quantities of food in a short period. Following these episodes, she induces vomiting because she is terrified of gaining weight. Her body mass index is 22.5 kg/m222.5 \text{ kg/m}^2. Blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg98/60 \text{ mm Hg} supine and 82/50 mm Hg82/50 \text{ mm Hg} upon standing. Heart rate is 105/min105/\text{min}. Physical examination reveals bilateral painless swelling of the cheeks and callous formation on the dorsum of her right hand. Laboratory studies reveal the following:

Laboratory TestResultReference Range
Sodium137 mEq/L137 \text{ mEq/L}136−145 mEq/L136-145 \text{ mEq/L}
Potassium2.6 mEq/L2.6 \text{ mEq/L}3.5−5.0 mEq/L3.5-5.0 \text{ mEq/L}
Chloride86 mEq/L86 \text{ mEq/L}98−106 mEq/L98-106 \text{ mEq/L}
Bicarbonate37 mEq/L37 \text{ mEq/L}22−28 mEq/L22-28 \text{ mEq/L}
TSH1.2 \muU/mL1.2 \text{ \mu U/mL}0.4−4.0 \muU/mL0.4-4.0 \text{ \mu U/mL}
Free T40.9 ng/dL0.9 \text{ ng/dL}0.9−1.7 ng/dL0.9-1.7 \text{ ng/dL}
Free T365 ng/dL65 \text{ ng/dL}80−200 ng/dL80-200 \text{ ng/dL}
Arterial blood gas on room air:
ParameterResult
pH7.537.53
pCO2_248 mm Hg48 \text{ mm Hg}
pO2_292 mm Hg92 \text{ mm Hg}

In addition to acute intravenous fluid and electrolyte resuscitation, which of the following is the most appropriate step in the management of this patient's condition?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiation of fluoxetine to reduce the frequency of binge-eating and purging episodes

Answer

The most appropriate long-term management step is the initiation of fluoxetine to reduce the frequency of binge-eating and purging episodes.
The patient's presentation of binge eating, self-induced vomiting, normal body mass index (22.5 kg/m222.5 \text{ kg/m}^2), parotid swelling, and Russell sign confirm a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Her labs reflect severe hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, a direct result of gastric acid and volume loss. Alongside nutritional rehabilitation and psychotherapy (Cognitive Behavioral Therapy), Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) are the pharmacologic treatment of choice. Fluoxetine is FDA-approved for bulimia nervosa and has been proven to significantly decrease both binge-eating and purging frequencies, regardless of comorbid depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the primary psychiatric condition based on clinical presentation.
The patient has Bulimia Nervosa, evidenced by recurrent binge eating, compensatory purging (self-induced vomiting), normal BMI, parotid gland enlargement, and Russell sign (calluses on knuckles).
Establishing the correct diagnosis distinguishes bulimia nervosa from anorexia nervosa, which typically presents with significantly low body weight (BMI < 18.5).
2
Interpret the laboratory and arterial blood gas findings.
The patient has severe hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis (pH 7.53, high HCO3). The pCO2 of 48 is expected respiratory compensation (Expected pCO2 = 40 + [0.7 * (37 - 24)] = 49.1). The thyroid panel shows euthyroid sick syndrome.
Understanding the systemic complications of purging allows the clinician to avoid inappropriate interventions for expected compensatory mechanisms and lab anomalies.
3
Select the safest and most effective long-term pharmacotherapy.
Fluoxetine is selected as it is the first-line SSRI for bulimia nervosa. Bupropion is contraindicated due to seizure risk.
After acute medical stabilization of electrolytes and volume depletion, long-term pharmacological management alongside cognitive behavioral therapy is required to prevent relapse.

Key Concept

Bulimia nervosa is characterized by binge eating and compensatory behaviors at a normal or overweight BMI. Treatment involves nutritional rehabilitation, cognitive behavioral therapy, and SSRIs (specifically fluoxetine). Bupropion is contraindicated due to seizure risk.
Question 620Question →

A 32-year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient psychiatric clinic for worsening mood. She delivered a healthy full-term infant 2 months ago. For the last 3 weeks, she has experienced profound sadness, anhedonia, loss of appetite resulting in a 3-kg (6.6-lb) weight loss, and extreme guilt about being a "terrible mother." For the past week, she reports hearing a persistent, derogatory voice telling her she should "disappear." Her husband notes that 6 years ago, she had a 3-week period where she abruptly quit her job, slept only 2 hours per night but felt fully energetic, exhibited pressured speech, and maxed out their credit cards. This previous episode required a brief psychiatric hospitalization, but she stopped taking her prescribed medications 5 years ago. She currently takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, she exhibits a blunted affect and psychomotor retardation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine monotherapy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to initiate quetiapine monotherapy.
The correct action is to initiate quetiapine monotherapy. This patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode with psychotic features (auditory hallucinations, profound sadness, guilt, weight loss). However, her history of a distinct episode characterized by a decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, impulsivity, and hospitalization definitively indicates a past manic episode. Therefore, her underlying diagnosis is bipolar I disorder, and she is currently experiencing bipolar depression with psychotic features. Quetiapine is an atypical antipsychotic that is FDA-approved for bipolar depression; it will simultaneously target both her severe mood symptoms and her psychotic features without carrying the risk of inducing a manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the current clinical syndrome from the presentation.
The patient has a 3-week history of severe depressive symptoms and a 1-week history of auditory hallucinations, indicating a major depressive episode with psychotic features.
Characterizing the current episode is necessary before determining the overarching psychiatric diagnosis.
2
Review the patient's psychiatric history for previous mood episodes.
The patient had a distinct 3-week episode of decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and reckless behavior requiring hospitalization.
A history of a manic episode changes the diagnosis from unipolar major depressive disorder to bipolar I disorder.
3
Formulate the correct comprehensive diagnosis.
The diagnosis is bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressive phase with psychotic features, with postpartum onset.
Accurate diagnosis prevents the use of contraindicated medications like SSRI monotherapy.
4
Select the appropriate pharmacological treatment.
Quetiapine is chosen as the next step in management.
Bipolar depression with psychotic features requires an agent that provides mood stabilization and antipsychotic effects. Quetiapine is an atypical antipsychotic approved for bipolar depression.

Key Concept

Discrimination between unipolar and bipolar depression with psychotic features, and selection of appropriate mood-stabilizing pharmacotherapy.
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