Psychiatry

814 questions

Question 721Question →

A 20-year-old male university student is brought to the emergency department by his roommate due to severe agitation and confusion. The roommate reports that the patient has been acting increasingly bizarre over the last six hours. When questioned, the roommate admits the patient ingested multiple bottles of over-the-counter dextromethorphan-containing cough syrup earlier today in an attempt to experience hallucinations. The patient has a history of major depressive disorder, for which he takes daily fluoxetine. Vital signs show a temperature of 39.4∘C39.4^\circ\text{C} (102.9∘F102.9^\circ\text{F}), pulse of 134/min134/\text{min}, blood pressure of 172/105 mmHg172/105\text{ mmHg}, and respiratory rate of 22/min22/\text{min}. Physical examination reveals a diaphoretic, flushed young man who is disoriented to time and place. He exhibits spontaneous muscle twitching and a coarse bilateral tremor. Neurologic examination is notable for marked hyperreflexia in the lower extremities and sustained ocular clonus. In addition to providing intravenous fluids and supportive care, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Administer cyproheptadine

Answer

Administer cyproheptadine
The correct answer is administering cyproheptadine. This patient is exhibiting classic signs of Serotonin Syndrome (SS), a potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive serotonergic activity in the central and peripheral nervous systems. The syndrome is classically characterized by a triad of altered mental status (agitation, confusion), autonomic instability (hyperthermia, tachycardia, diaphoresis, hypertension), and neuromuscular hyperactivity (tremor, hyperreflexia, and ocular or spontaneous clonus). The patient's recreational ingestion of large amounts of dextromethorphan (an NMDA receptor antagonist that also blocks serotonin reuptake) while on a maintenance dose of fluoxetine (an SSRI) precipitated this crisis. Management of SS involves discontinuing the offending agents, providing supportive care (intravenous fluids, cooling measures), and administering benzodiazepines for agitation and tremor. If symptoms are severe or refractory, the specific antidote cyproheptadine (a 5-HT2A receptor antagonist) is indicated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary toxidrome based on clinical presentation and history.
The patient presents with autonomic instability (hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypertension), altered mental status, and neuromuscular hyperactivity (hyperreflexia, ocular clonus) following ingestion of dextromethorphan while on fluoxetine.
Recognizing the classic triad of Serotonin Syndrome is essential for distinguishing it from other causes of fever and altered mental status.
2
Determine the pharmacological mechanism causing the syndrome.
Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Dextromethorphan, commonly abused for its dissociative effects, also possesses significant serotonin reuptake inhibition properties.
The combination of multiple serotonergic agents precipitates a life-threatening excess of serotonin in the central nervous system.
3
Select the most appropriate targeted pharmacotherapy.
Cyproheptadine is chosen as the definitive antidote.
Cyproheptadine is a histamine-1 receptor antagonist with non-specific 5-HT1A and 5-HT2A antagonistic properties, directly reversing the serotonergic excess when supportive care and benzodiazepines are insufficient.

Key Concept

Serotonin syndrome can be precipitated by the combination of prescribed SSRIs and recreational substances with serotonergic activity, such as dextromethorphan. It presents with autonomic instability, altered mental status, and neuromuscular hyperactivity (e.g., clonus), and is treated with cyproheptadine.
Question 722Question →

Emergency medical services bring a 26-year-old woman to the hospital due to severe agitation and confusion that began abruptly this morning. According to her roommate, the patient has been recovering from an upper respiratory tract infection over the past few days and recently started taking a new over-the-counter syrup for a persistent, dry cough. Her only daily prescription medication is citalopram for major depressive disorder. Upon arrival, the patient appears profoundly restless and disoriented. Vital signs show a temperature of 38.9°C (102.0°F), blood pressure of 162/94 mm Hg, heart rate of 128/min, and respiratory rate of 22/min. Physical examination reveals warm, diaphoretic skin and visibly dilated pupils. She has continuous rhythmic muscle twitching in her lower extremities, brisk patellar reflexes (4+ bilaterally), and sustained ankle clonus. Which of the following active ingredients is most likely present in the cough medication this patient consumed?

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Answer: Dextromethorphan

Answer

Dextromethorphan
The patient's presentation of altered mental status, autonomic instability (fever, tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis), and neuromuscular hyperactivity (hyperreflexia, sustained ankle clonus) in the context of taking an SSRI (citalopram) is highly characteristic of serotonin syndrome. Dextromethorphan, a widely available over-the-counter antitussive, acts as a weak serotonin reuptake inhibitor in addition to its NMDA receptor antagonism. When combined with other serotonergic agents like SSRIs, MAOIs, or SNRIs, dextromethorphan can precipitate life-threatening serotonin toxicity. Recognizing this dangerous psychiatric drug interaction is critical in acute care settings.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's presenting symptoms and vital signs.
The patient exhibits altered mental status, autonomic hyperactivity (fever, tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis), and neuromuscular excitability (hyperreflexia, clonus).
To establish a primary clinical syndrome from the physical exam findings.
2
Correlate the clinical syndrome with the patient's medication history.
The triad of symptoms in a patient taking citalopram (an SSRI) strongly indicates serotonin syndrome.
To identify the underlying pathophysiology causing the acute presentation.
3
Identify the over-the-counter medication that could precipitate this syndrome.
Dextromethorphan has serotonin reuptake inhibition properties and can trigger serotonin syndrome when combined with an SSRI.
To determine the precipitating agent and answer the specific question.

Key Concept

Serotonin syndrome can be precipitated by combining SSRIs with over-the-counter dextromethorphan due to its serotonergic activity.
Question 723Question →

A 32-year-old woman is evaluated in the psychiatry clinic for ongoing management of major depressive disorder. She initially presented two years ago with a 3-month history of pervasive sadness, anhedonia, significant weight loss, and severe insomnia leading to functional impairment at work. Over the course of her illness, she has required progressive escalation of her treatment regimen due to inadequate responses. Arrange the following therapeutic interventions in the generally accepted chronological sequence that her physician would have followed, from initial diagnosis to the management of severe, treatment-resistant symptoms.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Initiation of an SSRI -> Switch to an SNRI monotherapy -> Augmentation with an atypical antipsychotic -> Referral for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
The standard stepped-care algorithm for major depressive disorder dictates starting with a single first-line agent, typically an SSRI. If the patient exhibits no response after an adequate trial, switching to a different monotherapy (such as an SNRI) is indicated. If there is persistent non-response or only a partial response after multiple sequential monotherapy trials, augmentation with an atypical antipsychotic, lithium, or a second antidepressant is appropriate. Finally, if the depression remains severely treatment-resistant despite these medication combinations, neuromodulation therapies such as electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) are considered.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the first-line treatment for a new diagnosis of major depressive disorder.
Initiation of an SSRI.
SSRIs have a favorable side effect profile and proven efficacy, making them the standard initial choice.
2
Determine the appropriate management for an initial medication non-response.
Switch to an SNRI monotherapy.
When a patient shows no clinical response to a first-line agent, the standard algorithm recommends switching to a different monotherapy rather than immediately adding medications.
3
Select the strategy for continued non-response or partial response after multiple monotherapy trials.
Augmentation with an atypical antipsychotic.
Adding a second medication with a different mechanism of action is appropriate when monotherapies have been exhausted or yield insufficient improvement.
4
Identify the ultimate intervention for severe, refractory cases.
Referral for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
ECT is highly effective and is utilized when patients remain severely symptomatic despite multiple combination pharmacological regimens.

Key Concept

Stepped-care pharmacological escalation for major depressive disorder
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 724Question →

A 31-year-old man with a known diagnosis of schizophrenia is brought to the emergency department by police due to severe agitation and threatening behavior. He is pacing rapidly in the examination room, yelling at staff, actively responding to internal stimuli, and clenching his fists. Arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate sequential order for this patient, from the initial approach to the intervention of absolute last resort.

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Answer

The correct sequential order is: 1) Attempt verbal de-escalation, 2) Offer voluntary oral psychotropic medications, 3) Administer involuntary intramuscular (IM) psychotropic medications, and 4) Apply physical restraints.
The standard of care for acute agitation dictates a stepwise approach starting with the least restrictive means possible. Verbal de-escalation and environmental modification should always be the initial step. If this fails, offering voluntary oral medications is the next least restrictive option. If the patient refuses and remains a danger to themselves or others, involuntary intramuscular (IM) medications (chemical restraint) become necessary. Physical restraints carry significant risks and are strictly reserved as an absolute last resort when all other methods have failed and there is an imminent threat to safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prioritize the least restrictive intervention by attempting verbal de-escalation and modifying the environment.
Establishes a baseline attempt to calm the patient without coercion.
Respects patient autonomy and minimizes the risk of physical confrontation.
2
Offer voluntary oral medications if verbal techniques fail.
Provides the patient an opportunity to voluntarily accept pharmacological treatment.
Oral medications are less restrictive and less traumatic than involuntary injections.
3
Escalate to involuntary intramuscular (IM) medications if the patient refuses oral treatment and remains dangerous.
Achieves rapid chemical restraint.
Necessary to ensure the safety of the patient and staff when less restrictive measures have failed.
4
Utilize physical restraints only if all previous steps fail or are impossible to implement safely.
Physically secures the patient to prevent immediate harm.
Physical restraints carry the highest risk of injury and psychological trauma, making them the intervention of absolute last resort.

Key Concept

The management of acute agitation in psychiatric patients follows a stepwise protocol that strictly prioritizes the least restrictive interventions first to ensure safety while respecting patient autonomy.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 725Question →

Match each acute medication-induced psychiatric emergency or toxidrome with its most appropriate specific therapeutic intervention.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A patient being treated for depression develops tachycardia, diaphoresis, hyperreflexia, and spontaneous myoclonus shortly after taking over-the-counter dextromethorphan.
A patient with a history of psychosis presents with profound 'lead-pipe' muscle rigidity, extreme hyperthermia, and a creatine kinase level of 5,500 U/L.
A patient managed for bipolar disorder develops severe ataxia, coarse tremors, altered mental status, and a seizure two days after starting hydrochlorothiazide.
A patient with treatment-resistant depression is brought in after an intentional overdose; ECG reveals a QRS duration of 145 msec alongside dry mucous membranes and mydriasis.
A patient taking a medication for atypical depression experiences a sudden, severe throbbing headache and a blood pressure of 215/120 mm Hg after consuming a large amount of aged cheese.

Matches

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Answer

The clinical vignettes describe classic psychopharmacological emergencies. The dextromethorphan-precipitated hyperreflexia matches Serotonin Syndrome, treated with cyproheptadine. The 'lead-pipe' rigidity describes NMS, treated with bromocriptine or dantrolene. Thiazide-induced ataxia and seizures indicate severe lithium toxicity, necessitating hemodialysis. The anticholinergic toxidrome with widened QRS identifies TCA overdose, requiring sodium bicarbonate. Finally, the cheese-induced hypertensive emergency represents an MAOI crisis, treated with phentolamine.
Each patient presentation maps to a specific pathophysiological mechanism caused by psychiatric medication toxicity, requiring targeted antidotal therapy. Serotonin syndrome is mediated by excess 5-HT and responds to the antagonist cyproheptadine. NMS results from central dopamine blockade, responding to dopamine agonists. Severe lithium toxicity with neurologic collapse requires rapid removal via hemodialysis. TCA-induced cardiotoxicity relies on sodium channel blockade, which is overcome by the alkaline sodium load of sodium bicarbonate. MAOI tyramine crisis causes excessive alpha-adrenergic stimulation, which is blocked by phentolamine.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first scenario featuring hyperreflexia and myoclonus following dextromethorphan use.
Diagnosis is Serotonin Syndrome. Dextromethorphan has serotonergic activity and can trigger this syndrome when combined with antidepressants.
Identifying the specific neuromuscular findings (hyperreflexia, myoclonus) differentiates this from NMS and directs treatment toward a 5-HT2A antagonist.
2
Analyze the second scenario featuring 'lead-pipe' rigidity, hyperthermia, and elevated CK.
Diagnosis is Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome. The profound rigidity and high CK are hallmarks of D2 receptor blockade toxicity.
Recognizing dopamine blockade as the pathophysiology points toward dopamine agonists (bromocriptine) or muscle relaxants (dantrolene) as the correct intervention.
3
Evaluate the third scenario featuring ataxia, coarse tremors, and seizures triggered by a thiazide diuretic.
Diagnosis is severe lithium toxicity. Thiazides decrease lithium clearance, leading to accumulation. The presence of seizures indicates severe, life-threatening toxicity.
While mild lithium toxicity may be managed with hydration, severe neurological symptoms or levels >4.0 mEq/L mandate urgent hemodialysis.
4
Examine the fourth scenario showing anticholinergic signs (dry mouth, mydriasis) and a widened QRS complex.
Diagnosis is Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA) overdose. The widened QRS is caused by fast sodium channel blockade in the myocardium.
Sodium bicarbonate increases serum pH and extracellular sodium concentration, effectively overcoming the sodium channel blockade and preventing deadly arrhythmias.
5
Assess the final scenario of sudden severe hypertension and headache after eating aged cheese.
Diagnosis is a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis in a patient taking an MAOI for atypical depression.
Excess tyramine acts as a sympathomimetic. Alpha-adrenergic blockade with phentolamine is the specific antidote for this life-threatening vasoconstriction.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and management of life-threatening psychopharmacological toxicities and drug-drug interactions.
Question 726Question →

A 26-year-old female software engineer is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for an 8-month history of excessive, uncontrollable worry. She reports being constantly anxious about her job performance, personal finances, and the health of her parents. This worry is accompanied by severe muscle tension, easily fatiguing, and difficulty falling asleep. During the psychiatric review of systems, the patient mentions that two years ago she experienced a distinct one-week period where she felt "on top of the world," slept only two hours a night without feeling tired, talked more rapidly than usual, and accumulated significant debt from impulsive online shopping. She currently takes no medications other than an oral contraceptive pill. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals mild trapezius muscle tenderness but is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following statements regarding the evaluation and management of this patient are correct? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Cognitive-behavioral therapy is an appropriate first-line intervention for this patient's current psychiatric presentation.; Initial diagnostic evaluation should include a thyroid-stimulating hormone level and a urine toxicology screen.

Answer

The appropriate steps include recognizing that cognitive-behavioral therapy is a safe and effective first-line intervention, and that the initial diagnostic evaluation should incorporate a thyroid-stimulating hormone level and a urine toxicology screen to rule out physiological causes.
The patient's current presentation of excessive, difficult-to-control worry lasting over 6 months with associated physical symptoms is diagnostic of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD). Concurrently, her history of a 1-week episode of elevated mood and impulsivity is diagnostic of a past manic episode, giving her a background diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. For a new presentation of severe anxiety, standard of care dictates ruling out physiologic causes, such as hyperthyroidism or substance use, utilizing tests like TSH and a urine toxicology screen. Once primary GAD is confirmed, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is an excellent first-line treatment. CBT is highly efficacious for GAD and is particularly advantageous in this patient as it avoids the pharmacological risks of inducing a manic episode, which is a major concern when using antidepressants in bipolar patients.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current psychiatric symptoms and timeline.
The patient has 8 months of excessive worry, muscle tension, fatigue, and sleep disturbances, which meets the criteria for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD).
Establishing the current primary diagnosis is necessary to guide symptom-targeted management.
2
Evaluate the patient's past psychiatric history from the review of systems.
The patient describes a distinct 1-week period of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and impulsivity two years ago, which meets the criteria for a past manic episode, establishing an underlying diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.
Past psychiatric history critically alters the safety profile of pharmacological treatments for her current anxiety.
3
Determine the safest and most appropriate diagnostic and therapeutic interventions.
Medical rule-outs (TSH, toxicology) are indicated for new anxiety presentations. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is selected as a first-line therapy because it effectively treats GAD without the risk of precipitating a manic episode, unlike SSRI monotherapy.
Evidence-based guidelines require ruling out medical etiologies first and avoiding antidepressant monotherapy in patients with Bipolar I Disorder to prevent iatrogenic harm.

Key Concept

Management of Generalized Anxiety Disorder in the context of comorbid Bipolar I Disorder requires careful avoidance of antidepressant monotherapy to prevent manic switching, making non-pharmacologic options like CBT highly favorable, alongside standard medical rule-outs.
Question 727Question →

A 34-year-old man is newly diagnosed with severe major depressive disorder without psychotic features. Over the course of 18 months, his symptoms prove to be highly refractory to standard treatments despite confirmed medication adherence. Arrange the following clinical management steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence, reflecting the standard escalating algorithm for treatment-resistant depression.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with initiating an SSRI, followed by optimizing its dose, augmenting with an adjunctive agent, and finally considering electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for refractory disease.
The algorithm progresses from the least invasive and best-tolerated options to more intensive therapies. It starts with monotherapy, optimizes the current trial to ensure adequate dosing, introduces augmentation strategies to synergize mechanisms of action, and finally reserves highly intensive somatic therapies like ECT for definitive treatment resistance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the starting point for a newly diagnosed patient with major depressive disorder.
Initiating SSRI monotherapy is the standard first-line treatment.
SSRIs have a favorable side-effect profile and are first-line agents for major depressive disorder.
2
Determine the next step for a patient showing partial response to initial therapy.
Titrating the initial agent to the maximum tolerated dose is the next logical step.
Ensuring an adequate dose and duration is necessary before concluding an agent is ineffective.
3
Identify the next strategy when the optimized dose fails to achieve full remission.
Augmentation with an adjunctive agent, such as an atypical antipsychotic, is indicated.
Combining medications with different mechanisms can boost efficacy in treatment-resistant cases.
4
Determine the last resort for severe treatment-resistant depression.
Referral for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the final step in this sequence.
ECT is highly efficacious and indicated when multiple pharmacological interventions have failed.

Key Concept

The step-wise management of treatment-resistant major depressive disorder involves initiating first-line monotherapy, optimizing the dose, augmenting with adjunctive agents, and utilizing somatic therapies like electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for highly refractory cases.
Question 728Question →

A 34-year-old man presents to a new primary care physician complaining of severe fatigue, sleeping 12 to 14 hours a day, significant weight gain, and an inability to experience pleasure in his usual hobbies for the past two months. He states that his depressive symptoms are significantly impairing his daily functioning and requests a specific prescription for an antidepressant. Upon detailed psychiatric review, he mentions that four years ago, he experienced a one-month period where he abruptly quit his job, maxed out several credit cards to start a speculative business venture, and felt "like a superhuman" despite resting for only an hour each night. He was involuntarily hospitalized during that period due to aggressive behavior but subsequently declined long-term medication. He has no other medical conditions and his physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological therapy for this patient's current symptoms?

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Answer: Quetiapine

Answer

Quetiapine is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's acute bipolar depression.
This patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode but has a clear history of a manic episode (duration of at least one week, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, reckless financial behavior, and severe impairment requiring hospitalization). Therefore, his correct diagnosis is bipolar I disorder, most recent episode depressed. The first-line pharmacological treatment for acute bipolar depression includes specific second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone) or mood stabilizers (e.g., lithium). Quetiapine effectively treats the depressive symptoms without increasing the risk of mood destabilization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current symptoms.
The patient is experiencing severe fatigue, hypersomnia, weight gain, and anhedonia lasting two months, meeting criteria for a major depressive episode.
Identifying the current mood state is required to select targeted pharmacotherapy.
2
Evaluate the patient's psychiatric history.
The history reveals a distinct one-month period of grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, reckless behavior, and hospitalization, confirming a past manic episode.
A past manic episode changes the diagnosis from major depressive disorder to bipolar I disorder.
3
Determine the appropriate pharmacological guidelines for the diagnosis.
The diagnosis is bipolar I disorder, currently depressed. Antidepressant monotherapy must be avoided due to the risk of manic switch. First-line treatments include specific second-generation antipsychotics like quetiapine or lurasidone.
Standard of care for bipolar depression specifically requires avoiding typical antidepressants in favor of agents with mood-stabilizing properties.

Key Concept

Patients with bipolar depression must be treated with specific mood stabilizers or second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone) rather than antidepressant monotherapy to avoid precipitating a manic episode.
Question 729Question →

A 25-year-old man is brought to the psychiatry clinic by his brother. The brother reports that for the past 3 months, the patient has been barricading himself in his apartment because he believes federal agents are monitoring his thoughts. During the interview, the patient maintains poor eye contact, speaks with a flat affect, and occasionally turns his head to whisper to seemingly empty space, stating that he is answering "the voices." The brother notes that the patient was functioning well and working as a software engineer until 3 months ago when these symptoms abruptly began. The patient has had no periods of depressed mood, increased energy, or decreased need for sleep. Medical workup and urine toxicology screening are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Schizophreniform disorder

Answer

Schizophreniform disorder
The correct answer is schizophreniform disorder because the patient meets the criteria for active-phase symptoms of schizophrenia (delusions, auditory hallucinations, and negative symptoms) but the total duration of the illness is between 1 and 6 months (3 months in this case).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical syndrome.
The patient has delusions, auditory hallucinations, and negative symptoms (flat affect, poor eye contact) without major mood symptoms.
This establishes a primary psychotic disorder and rules out mood disorders with psychotic features.
2
Determine the exact duration of the psychotic symptoms.
The brother reports the symptoms have been present for exactly 3 months.
Duration is the primary differentiating factor among the acute psychotic disorders.
3
Apply DSM-5 timeline criteria for psychotic disorders.
Symptoms lasting between 1 and 6 months meet the criteria for schizophreniform disorder.
Brief psychotic disorder is <1 month, and schizophrenia is >6 months.

Key Concept

Psychotic disorders are differentiated by symptom duration: brief psychotic disorder (<1 month), schizophreniform disorder (1 to 6 months), and schizophrenia (>6 months).
Question 730Question →

A 33-year-old female paramedic presents to the occupational health clinic reporting severe insomnia, emotional numbness, and being constantly "on edge" for the past 6 months. She states her symptoms began after she responded to a mass casualty incident. She reports recurrent, distressing nightmares about the scene and goes out of her way to avoid driving near the location of the incident. Her medical history includes bipolar II disorder, for which she stopped taking medication three years ago, and a recent skin infection for which she is currently taking linezolid. Laboratory results show a TSH of 1.5 mU/L (Normal: 0.4-4.0) and a free T4 of 0.6 ng/dL (Normal: 0.8-1.8). She requests medication to help her sleep and improve her mood. Her father, who drove her to the clinic, approaches the physician in the hallway and asks for an update on her condition because he is worried about her recent anger outbursts. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Refer the patient for trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer

Refer the patient for trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy
The correct answer is referring the patient for trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy. This patient meets the DSM-5 criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), characterized by intrusive symptoms, avoidance behavior, negative mood alterations, and hyperarousal lasting more than one month following a traumatic event. Both trauma-focused CBT and serotonergic antidepressants (SSRIs/SNRIs) are first-line treatments for PTSD. However, this patient has two major contraindications to serotonergic medications: she has unmedicated bipolar II disorder (which places her at high risk for an antidepressant-induced hypomanic switch) and she is taking linezolid. Linezolid has monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) activity, and combining it with an SSRI or SNRI can precipitate life-threatening serotonin syndrome. Therefore, trauma-focused CBT is the safest and most appropriate evidence-based intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the primary psychiatric condition based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD).
She has exposure to a severe trauma, followed by >1 month of intrusive symptoms (nightmares), avoidance, emotional numbness, and hyperarousal (insomnia, anger).
2
Evaluate the patient's medical history for contraindications to standard pharmacotherapy.
The patient has unmedicated bipolar II disorder and is taking linezolid.
Standard first-line pharmacotherapy for PTSD includes SSRIs and SNRIs. However, SSRI/SNRI monotherapy can induce hypomania in bipolar patients. Additionally, linezolid is a weak MAOI, and combining it with serotonergic agents risks serotonin syndrome.
3
Select the safest and most effective first-line treatment.
Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is selected.
CBT is a highly effective, first-line evidence-based treatment for PTSD that completely avoids the severe pharmacologic risks present in this patient.

Key Concept

First-line management of PTSD involves trauma-focused psychotherapy or pharmacotherapy (SSRIs/SNRIs), but psychotherapy is strongly preferred when significant pharmacologic contraindications (e.g., unmedicated bipolar disorder, concurrent MAOI use) exist.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 731Question →

During a routine health maintenance visit, the parents of a 24-month-old boy express deep concern that their son might have a neurodevelopmental disorder. They report reading online that toddlers should speak in complete sentences by age 2 and are worried because he only uses two-word phrases, such as "want juice" or "go out". His current vocabulary consists of approximately 60 words. The parents also mention that he occasionally has temper tantrums when transitioning from playtime to bedtime, during which he cries and drops to the floor. These episodes typically resolve within five minutes after redirection. On examination, the child makes appropriate eye contact, points to pictures in a book when named, and engages in pretend play with a toy telephone. He can run, kick a ball, and build a tower of six blocks. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Reassurance and routine follow-up

Answer

Reassurance and routine follow-up
The correct answer is reassurance and routine follow-up because this child is exhibiting perfectly normal development for a 24-month-old.

Normal milestones at age 2 include:
DomainExpected Milestones at 24 Months
LanguageVocabulary of ≥50 words, uses 2-word phrases (noun + verb), speech is ~50% intelligible to strangers
SocialParallel play, pretend play, joint attention (pointing to share interest)
MotorRuns well, kicks a ball, walks up/down stairs (two feet per step)
Fine MotorBuilds a tower of up to 6 blocks, turns book pages
Joint attention and normal eye contact make autism spectrum disorder highly unlikely. Occasional, easily redirectable temper tantrums are a normal part of toddlerhood as children begin to assert their independence. Therefore, no further diagnostic workup is required.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's language milestones against developmental norms.
The child has a 60-word vocabulary and uses 2-word phrases, which meets and slightly exceeds the 24-month milestone expectations.
To determine if there is an objective language delay justifying the parents' concerns.
2
Assess the patient's social and behavioral presentation.
The child exhibits joint attention (pointing), pretend play, and brief, easily redirectable temper tantrums.
To screen for core features of autism spectrum disorder (which would present with social deficits) or significant behavioral pathologies.
3
Synthesize findings to determine the next management step.
All language, motor, and social milestones are normal for a 2-year-old.
Because development is entirely normal, medical interventions or specialist referrals are contraindicated, making reassurance the appropriate action.

Key Concept

Normal pediatric development at 24 months includes a vocabulary of ≥50 words, 2-word phrases, parallel or pretend play, joint attention, and transient temper tantrums.
Question 732Question →

A 47-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for altered mental status, fever, and severe agitation that started a few hours ago. His wife reports that he had been recovering from a minor ankle sprain sustained over the weekend. His medical history is significant for treatment-resistant major depressive disorder, for which he has been taking tranylcypromine for the past two years. His temperature is 39.4°C (102.9°F), blood pressure is 168/105 mm Hg, and pulse is 128/min. On physical examination, the patient is visibly diaphoretic. Neurological examination reveals spontaneous clonus in the lower extremities and horizontal ocular clonus. He recently started taking a new medication prescribed for his ankle sprain. Which of the following medications was most likely prescribed?

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Answer: Tramadol

Answer

Tramadol
The patient's presentation of altered mental status, autonomic hyperactivity (fever, diaphoresis, tachycardia, hypertension), and prominent neuromuscular excitability (spontaneous and ocular clonus) is highly characteristic of serotonin syndrome. This life-threatening toxidrome is most commonly precipitated by the concurrent use of multiple serotonergic medications. The patient is already taking tranylcypromine, an irreversible, nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that strongly inhibits the breakdown of serotonin. Tramadol is an analgesic commonly prescribed for musculoskeletal pain that acts as a weak mu-opioid receptor agonist and also inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. When combined with an MAOI, the dual mechanism of decreased serotonin metabolism and inhibited serotonin reuptake rapidly leads to toxic synaptic serotonin levels, triggering serotonin syndrome. Therefore, tramadol is strictly contraindicated in patients taking MAOIs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical syndrome based on the physical examination and vital signs.
The combination of altered mental status, autonomic hyperactivity (hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis), and neuromuscular excitability (spontaneous and ocular clonus) strongly indicates serotonin syndrome.
Recognizing the characteristic toxidrome is the critical first step to determining its pharmacological cause.
2
Analyze the patient's baseline medications for potential interactions.
The patient takes tranylcypromine, a nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), which significantly increases baseline synaptic serotonin levels by preventing its degradation.
MAOIs are a classic component in severe drug-drug interactions leading to serotonin syndrome.
3
Evaluate the answer choices to identify the medication that would interact with the MAOI to trigger this syndrome.
Among the choices provided for an ankle sprain, only tramadol acts to inhibit serotonin reuptake, making it the precipitating agent.
Understanding the specific mechanisms of action of various analgesics helps isolate the exact cause of the life-threatening adverse reaction.

Key Concept

Dangerous drug interactions with MAOIs precipitating serotonin syndrome
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 733Question →

A 31-year-old accountant visits the family medicine clinic accompanied by his partner. He reports a 5-week history of profound sadness, decreased energy, and difficulty concentrating. He states that he sleeps up to 14 hours a day and has gained 6 kg (13 lbs) over the past month. He describes a persistent sensation that his arms and legs are "weighed down by lead." His partner notes that his mood occasionally brightens for a few hours when they go out to his favorite restaurant, but he quickly reverts to feeling depressed. He has missed several days of work. He has no significant past medical history. Family history is notable for a mother who was hospitalized multiple times for erratic behavior and severe mood swings. Physical examination and basic laboratory studies, including thyroid function tests, are within normal limits. The physician determines that the patient is experiencing a major depressive episode. Which of the following is the most critical next step in management prior to initiating pharmacotherapy?

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Answer: Elicit a history of distinct periods of decreased need for sleep and increased goal-directed activity

Answer

The most critical next step is to elicit a history of distinct periods of decreased need for sleep and increased goal-directed activity to screen for a history of hypomania or mania.
This patient is experiencing a major depressive episode with atypical features, which include mood reactivity, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and leaden paralysis. Atypical features, combined with a strong family history of erratic behavior and psychiatric hospitalizations, significantly increase the pre-test probability that this depressive episode is a manifestation of bipolar disorder rather than unipolar major depressive disorder. Before establishing a diagnosis of unipolar depression and initiating pharmacological treatment, it is absolutely critical to screen for a history of mania or hypomania (e.g., decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, increased goal-directed activity). Prescribing an antidepressant to a patient with unrecognized bipolar disorder can precipitate a dangerous manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's specific depressive symptoms and historical context.
The patient presents with a major depressive episode characterized by atypical features (hypersomnia, hyperphagia/weight gain, leaden paralysis, and mood reactivity) alongside a family history highly suspicious for bipolar disorder.
Identifying these specific subtype features is crucial because atypical depression has a high correlation with bipolar disorder.
2
Determine the diagnostic requirements for major depressive disorder.
The DSM-5 criteria for major depressive disorder explicitly require that there has never been a manic or hypomanic episode.
Unipolar depression and bipolar depression share depressive symptoms but require completely different pharmacological approaches.
3
Identify the risk associated with the next management step.
Before initiating any pharmacotherapy, the physician must screen for past manic/hypomanic episodes to avoid prescribing an antidepressant monotherapy.
Treating unrecognized bipolar depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) or other antidepressant monotherapy carries a high risk of inducing a manic switch.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with a major depressive episode—especially those with atypical features (hypersomnia, weight gain, leaden paralysis, mood reactivity) and a family history of mood disorders—must be carefully screened for past manic or hypomanic episodes before initiating antidepressant therapy to prevent an iatrogenic manic switch.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 734Question →

A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with altered mental status, severe agitation, and tremors. He recently started taking linezolid for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection while maintaining his usual daily dose of sertraline. Vital signs are temperature 39.8°C (103.6°F), pulse 132/min, respirations 22/min, and blood pressure 165/95 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals marked diaphoresis, mydriasis, hyperreflexia, and spontaneous ankle clonus. Arrange the following management steps in the correct sequential order for this patient, from the immediate initial action to interventions reserved for progressive or severe refractory symptoms.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence for managing serotonin syndrome begins with discontinuing the offending agents, followed by supportive care with fluids and benzodiazepines, then utilizing cyproheptadine for refractory symptoms, and finally reserving intubation and neuromuscular blockade for severe, life-threatening hyperthermia or respiratory failure.
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by excess serotonergic activity, often triggered by a combination of drugs (e.g., SSRIs and linezolid, which has weak monoamine oxidase inhibitor activity). The management algorithm must be followed sequentially based on severity. The absolute first step is the immediate discontinuation of the offending serotonergic agents. Following this, the mainstay of therapy is supportive care, utilizing intravenous fluids for hydration and benzodiazepines (like lorazepam) to control agitation, reduce muscle hyperactivity, and lower blood pressure and heart rate. If the patient's symptoms are refractory to supportive care and benzodiazepines, the specific 5-HT2A antagonist cyproheptadine should be administered. Finally, in extreme cases complicated by severe hyperthermia (temperature > 41.1°C) or impending respiratory failure, the patient requires intubation, mechanical ventilation, and non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade (e.g., vecuronium) to paralyze the muscles, thereby stopping the primary source of heat generation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's toxidrome.
The combination of altered mental status, autonomic instability, and neuromuscular hyperactivity (hyperreflexia, clonus) in a patient taking a combination of serotonergic agents (sertraline and linezolid) confirms a diagnosis of serotonin syndrome.
Accurate diagnosis is required to dictate the specific treatment algorithm.
2
Determine the first priority in management.
Discontinuation of all serotonergic agents (item 1).
Removing the causative agents prevents further accumulation of serotonin in the synaptic cleft and is always the initial step.
3
Select the first-line medical intervention.
Supportive care with intravenous fluids and benzodiazepines (item 2).
Benzodiazepines control agitation, reduce muscle contraction, and blunt the hyperadrenergic response, while IV fluids manage volume depletion.
4
Determine the appropriate intervention if first-line medical therapy fails.
Administration of cyproheptadine (item 3).
Cyproheptadine is a serotonin antagonist that is indicated when symptoms do not respond adequately to supportive measures and benzodiazepines.
5
Identify the ultimate step for severe, life-threatening toxicity.
Endotracheal intubation and non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade (item 4).
This is reserved for severe cases with extreme hyperthermia (> 41.1°C) to prevent severe muscle rigidity from generating excessive heat and causing rhabdomyolysis or death.

Key Concept

The sequential management of serotonin syndrome prioritizes stopping the offending agents, followed by supportive care with benzodiazepines, cyproheptadine for refractory cases, and paralysis/intubation for critical hyperthermia.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 735Question →

Match each patient's core clinical presentation to the most accurate definitive DSM-5 diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 22-year-old college student avoids eating in the cafeteria and using campus restrooms due to an overwhelming, pervasive fear of being scrutinized or humiliated by peers.
A 35-year-old accountant refuses to take public transportation or go to crowded shopping malls, fearing an inability to escape or obtain help if sudden, incapacitating symptoms occur.
A 19-year-old spends hours silently repeating specific words to neutralize recurrent, highly distressing mental images of harming their family, despite recognizing this behavior is excessive.
A 42-year-old software developer skips mandatory outdoor team-building events due to an intense, disproportionate fear of encountering dogs, which reliably provokes immediate panic.

Matches

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Answer

Student avoiding the cafeteria matches Social Anxiety Disorder. Accountant avoiding crowds matches Agoraphobia. 19-year-old repeating words matches Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. Developer fearing dogs matches Specific Phobia.
Each diagnosis is established by isolating the primary motivation for avoidance or distress: fear of evaluation by others (Social Anxiety Disorder), fear of escape difficulty or lack of help (Agoraphobia), fear provoked by specific triggers (Specific Phobia), or distress from intrusive thoughts mitigated by neutralizing behaviors (Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core underlying fear driving the avoidance behavior in each vignette.
Identified fears: scrutiny/embarrassment, inability to escape, intrusive violent thoughts, and exposure to dogs.
Psychiatric diagnoses in anxiety disorders are primarily differentiated by the specific etiology of the fear and the nature of the avoidance.
2
Map the specific fear and behavioral response to DSM-5 diagnostic criteria.
Matched scrutiny to Social Anxiety, escape difficulty to Agoraphobia, obsessions/compulsions to OCD, and isolated triggers to Specific Phobia.
Applying standard diagnostic thresholds ensures accurate differentiation of overlapping anxiety symptoms.

Key Concept

Differential diagnosis of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and related disorders based on the underlying motivation for fear and avoidance.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 736Question →

Match each clinical presentation following the initiation of antipsychotic therapy (left) with the underlying receptor mechanism or affected neuroanatomical pathway (right).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A patient experiences a significant reduction in auditory hallucinations and persecutory delusions.
A patient develops bilateral breast enlargement and a milky nipple discharge, accompanied by the cessation of menses.
A patient develops a sustained, painful contraction of the neck muscles (torticollis) shortly after receiving an intramuscular injection.
A patient experiences sudden dizziness, lightheadedness, and a drop in blood pressure immediately upon standing from a seated position.
A patient reports severe dry mouth, new-onset constipation, and blurred vision, with a physical exam showing resting tachycardia.

Matches

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Answer

The reduction in hallucinations matches mesolimbic D2 antagonism; galactorrhea/amenorrhea matches tuberoinfundibular D2 antagonism; acute dystonia matches nigrostriatal D2 antagonism; orthostatic hypotension matches alpha-1 adrenergic antagonism; and anticholinergic effects match muscarinic M1 antagonism.
Each clinical presentation is a direct consequence of receptor blockade by antipsychotic medications. Mesolimbic D2 antagonism controls positive symptoms. Tuberoinfundibular D2 antagonism causes hyperprolactinemia. Nigrostriatal D2 antagonism causes acute extrapyramidal symptoms. Alpha-1 antagonism causes orthostatic hypotension. Muscarinic antagonism causes anticholinergic effects.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the reduction in hallucinations and delusions.
This therapeutic effect corresponds to D2 receptor blockade in the mesolimbic tract.
The mesolimbic pathway is fundamentally associated with the development of positive psychotic symptoms.
2
Analyze the development of galactorrhea and amenorrhea.
This endocrine side effect corresponds to D2 receptor blockade in the tuberoinfundibular tract.
Dopamine normally inhibits prolactin release; blockade in this tract leads to hyperprolactinemia.
3
Analyze the sudden onset of torticollis.
This acute dystonic reaction corresponds to D2 receptor blockade in the nigrostriatal tract.
The nigrostriatal pathway regulates purposeful movement, and its acute blockade causes extrapyramidal motor symptoms.
4
Analyze the orthostatic hypotension upon standing.
This cardiovascular side effect corresponds to peripheral alpha-1 adrenergic receptor antagonism.
Alpha-1 blockade impairs peripheral vasoconstriction during positional changes.
5
Analyze the dry mouth, constipation, and tachycardia.
These symptoms correspond to muscarinic M1 cholinergic receptor antagonism.
Blockade of parasympathetic muscarinic receptors leads to classic systemic anticholinergic side effects.

Key Concept

Antipsychotic medications exert their primary therapeutic effects and cause distinct adverse side effects through the blockade of various receptors (D2, alpha-1, M1) across different neuroanatomical pathways.
Question 737Question →

Evaluate the following distinct patient scenarios and pair each clinical description with the most accurate psychiatric diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 5-year-old boy frequently loses his temper, actively defies requests from adults, and deliberately annoys others. He does not physically harm people or animals.
A 15-year-old boy frequently skips school, has been caught shoplifting multiple times, and recently initiated a physical fight resulting in injury to a peer.
A 6-year-old boy exhibits persistent deficits in social communication, avoids eye contact, and insists on eating the exact same meal every day, becoming highly distressed by small changes.
A 12-year-old boy has exhibited excessive eye blinking, facial grimacing, and repetitive throat clearing for the past 14 months.
A 9-year-old girl frequently makes careless mistakes on schoolwork, has difficulty sustaining attention in class, often loses her belongings, and seems not to listen when spoken to directly.

Matches

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Answer

The correct pairings match the 5-year-old with oppositional defiant disorder, the 15-year-old with conduct disorder, the 6-year-old with autism spectrum disorder, the 12-year-old with Tourette syndrome, and the 9-year-old with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
Each vignette aligns with specific diagnostic criteria outlined in the DSM-5. Oppositional defiant disorder is marked by defiance without severe rights violations. Conduct disorder involves aggression, theft, or severe rule-breaking. Autism spectrum disorder is characterized by social communication deficits and repetitive behaviors. Tourette syndrome requires both motor and vocal tics persisting for over a year. ADHD inattentive presentation features prominent focus and organizational deficits without significant hyperactivity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each clinical vignette to identify the core psychiatric symptom clusters and duration of symptoms.
Identified distinct patterns: defiance without aggression (ODD), severe rule violations (CD), social deficits with repetitive behaviors (ASD), chronic motor and vocal tics (Tourette), and isolated focus deficits (ADHD).
Accurate diagnosis of pediatric neurodevelopmental and behavioral disorders relies on recognizing specific criteria and distinguishing them from closely related conditions.

Key Concept

Differential diagnosis of childhood psychiatric and neurodevelopmental disorders
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 738Question →

Match each psychotropic medication used during pregnancy with its most characteristic associated fetal or neonatal adverse effect.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Lithium
Valproate
Paroxetine
Carbamazepine
Diazepam

Matches

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Answer

Lithium causes Ebstein anomaly; Valproate causes neural tube defects; Paroxetine causes cardiac septal defects; Carbamazepine causes craniofacial and fingernail hypoplasia; Diazepam causes floppy infant syndrome.
Psychotropic medications carry distinct risks during pregnancy. The matched pairings reflect the classical teratogenic and neonatal adverse effects associated with these specific agents, which must be carefully weighed against the risks of untreated psychiatric illness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Lithium's teratogenic profile.
Matches with downward displacement of the tricuspid valve.
Lithium causes Ebstein anomaly.
2
Analyze Valproate's teratogenic profile.
Matches with the sac-like protrusion on the lower back.
Valproate causes neural tube defects due to folate interference.
3
Analyze Paroxetine's teratogenic profile.
Matches with ventricular septal defect.
Paroxetine is an SSRI with known cardiac teratogenicity.
4
Analyze Carbamazepine's teratogenic profile.
Matches with midfacial and fingernail hypoplasia.
Carbamazepine causes fetal carbamazepine syndrome.
5
Analyze Diazepam's neonatal effects.
Matches with hypotonia and lethargy.
Benzodiazepines cause floppy infant syndrome when used near term.

Key Concept

Teratogenic and neonatal adverse effects of psychotropic medications
Question 739Question →

A 23-year-old female college student presents to the university health center complaining of intense sadness, exhaustion, and an inability to enjoy her usual activities over the last 96 hours. Upon further questioning, she admits to participating in a three-day period of continuous cocaine consumption to celebrate the end of her final exams. Her drug use ceased four days prior to this visit. Since that time, she notes that she sleeps approximately 15 hours daily, has an insatiable appetite, and experiences disturbing nightmares. She has no previous history of mental health disorders. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and physical evaluation shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Reassurance and supportive observation

Answer

Reassurance and supportive observation
The most appropriate next step in management is reassurance and supportive observation. This patient's presentation of profound dysphoria, hypersomnolence, hyperphagia, and vivid dreams following a heavy binge of stimulant use is classic for cocaine withdrawal, often referred to as a 'crash.' Unlike withdrawal from alcohol or benzodiazepines, stimulant withdrawal is not life-threatening and is generally self-limiting, resolving within 1 to 2 weeks without the need for specific pharmacotherapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's history and timeline of symptoms.
The patient has an acute onset of severe dysphoria, hypersomnolence, hyperphagia, and vivid dreams beginning immediately after a 3-day cocaine binge.
Establishing the temporal relationship between substance use and symptom onset is critical for diagnosis.
2
Identify the clinical syndrome based on the presentation.
The symptoms represent a classic stimulant withdrawal 'crash'.
Cocaine withdrawal is characterized by prominent psychological symptoms (depression, fatigue, increased appetite, and sleep disturbances) that directly contrast with the sympathetic overactivity seen during intoxication.
3
Determine the appropriate management.
No pharmacological intervention is required; reassurance and observation are indicated.
Cocaine withdrawal is generally mild to moderate, self-limiting (resolving in 1 to 2 weeks), and does not require targeted pharmacotherapy.

Key Concept

Cocaine withdrawal presents as a 'crash' with prominent psychological symptoms (severe depression, hypersomnolence, hyperphagia, vivid dreams) that is self-limiting and best managed with supportive observation.
Question 740Question →

A 31-year-old man comes to the outpatient psychiatry clinic reporting a 2-month history of sudden, terrifying episodes of "feeling like I am going to die." During these episodes, which peak within 10 minutes, he experiences intense palpitations, diaphoresis, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. He has had six of these episodes in the past month. Recently, he has stopped taking the subway to work because he fears being unable to escape if an episode occurs. The patient has no significant past medical history and his physical examination, including an electrocardiogram, is normal. Upon further psychiatric history, the patient describes a 3-week period in his mid-twenties when he felt "invincible," slept only 2 hours a night, spoke incessantly, and aggressively invested his life savings into a fraudulent scheme. He was hospitalized during that time but currently takes no medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy.
The correct answer is to initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy. This patient is currently experiencing Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia, characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks and a fear of situations where escape might be difficult. Standard first-line treatments for Panic Disorder include selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), and cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). However, this patient's history of a 3-week episode of grandiosity, decreased sleep, and impulsive behavior requiring hospitalization is classic for a manic episode, establishing an underlying diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. In patients with bipolar disorder, antidepressant monotherapy is strictly avoided because it can trigger a manic switch. CBT is highly effective for Panic Disorder and carries no risk of mood destabilization, making it the safest and most appropriate intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the current acute presentation based on the clinical symptoms and timeframe.
The patient has recurrent unexpected panic attacks with subsequent avoidance behavior (avoiding the subway), confirming a diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia.
Establishing the primary diagnosis is required to select an evidence-based first-line treatment.
2
Analyze the patient's past psychiatric history for comorbid conditions that affect management.
The patient describes a distinct 3-week period of elevated mood, grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, and severe impairment (hospitalization/financial ruin), meeting full criteria for a past Manic Episode and establishing a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.
Comorbid psychiatric conditions often introduce strict contraindications to standard pharmacotherapy.
3
Evaluate treatment options for Panic Disorder while considering the Bipolar I comorbidity.
While SSRIs are typically first-line for Panic Disorder, antidepressant monotherapy is strictly contraindicated in Bipolar I due to the high risk of inducing a manic switch.
To ensure patient safety, non-pharmacologic first-line treatments or mood-stabilizing combinations must be selected instead.
4
Select the safest, most effective management step.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is highly effective for Panic Disorder and carries zero risk of mood destabilization, making it the optimal choice.
CBT provides definitive, evidence-based treatment for the primary complaint without risking a psychiatric emergency.

Key Concept

In patients presenting with an anxiety disorder (e.g., Panic Disorder) who have a history of Bipolar Disorder, antidepressant monotherapy (SSRIs/SNRIs) must be avoided to prevent a manic switch; psychotherapy (such as CBT) is the preferred, safe first-line intervention.
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