A 28-year-old woman presents to the ambulatory care clinic with a 3-day history of painful urination and increased urinary frequency. She reports a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying and mild suprapubic discomfort. She denies fever, chills, flank pain, nausea, vomiting, hematuria, or vaginal discharge. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications other than an oral contraceptive. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg, and heart rate of 78/min. Physical examination reveals mild suprapubic tenderness to palpation but no costovertebral angle tenderness. A urine dipstick in the clinic is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. In the context of providing cost-conscious, high-value care, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Prescribe a 3-day course of oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazoleAnswer
- BOrder a non-contrast computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- CObtain a midstream urine culture and delay antibiotic therapy until results are available
- DAdmit the patient to the hospital for administration of intravenous ceftriaxone
- EPrescribe a 7-day course of oral ciprofloxacin