A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the general internal medicine clinic for preoperative clearance prior to an elective right eye phacoemulsification for cataracts. His past medical history is notable for essential hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both of which have been stable for several years. His current medications include amlodipine and atorvastatin. He reports feeling well and is physically active, swimming laps at the local pool three times a week. He denies dyspnea, orthopnea, chest pain, or palpitations. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 128/78 mm Hg, heart rate 68/min, and respiratory rate 14/min. Physical examination demonstrates clear lungs, normal heart sounds without murmurs, and no peripheral edema. The healthcare network has recently implemented a value-based care pathway aimed at reducing low-value clinical practices and minimizing unnecessary patient costs. In adherence to these high-value care principles, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the preoperative evaluation of this patient?
- Recommend proceeding with the surgical procedure without additional diagnostic testingAnswer
- BObtain a resting electrocardiogram to screen for silent myocardial ischemia given his age and comorbidities
- COrder a basic metabolic panel to verify normal renal function before the administration of perioperative medications
- DObtain a posterior-anterior and lateral chest radiograph to ensure the absence of occult cardiopulmonary pathology
- EPostpone the procedure and refer the patient to cardiology for formal risk stratification