A 64-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled hypertension presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset, severe, tearing pain between his shoulder blades that began 2 hours ago. He appears in severe distress. Blood pressure is 195/110 mmHg and heart rate is 108/min. The pulses are equal in all four extremities. An electrocardiogram is unremarkable. A non-contrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest reveals a crescent-shaped, high-attenuation area within the wall of the descending thoracic aorta, extending from just distal to the left subclavian artery down to the diaphragmatic hiatus. Subsequent CT angiography shows no intimal flap, no double lumen, and no contrast extravasation into the aortic wall. Based on the interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous esmolol infusionAnswer
- BUrgent open surgical repair of the descending aorta
- CThoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR)
- DIntravenous heparin infusion
- EAdmission to a general medical floor for oral antihypertensive titration