An 81-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance following a sudden collapse at a community center. Upon awakening, he complains of excruciating pain in his mid-abdomen that radiates directly to his lower back. He has a medical history of poorly controlled hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 50-pack-year smoking habit.
On physical examination, the patient appears pale, lethargic, and diaphoretic. His temperature is 36.2°C (97.2°F), pulse is 132/min and thready, blood pressure is 78/48 mm Hg, and respirations are 24/min. Abdominal examination reveals moderate distension with a palpable, pulsatile mass in the epigastric region.
A point-of-care ultrasound (POCUS) is performed at the bedside. The transverse view of the abdominal aorta demonstrates a maximum vessel diameter of 7.2 cm with an asymmetrical, echogenic mural thrombus. Additionally, the right upper quadrant view reveals a significant 3-cm anechoic stripe located between the liver and the right kidney.
Based on the clinical presentation and interpretation of the imaging results, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Transfer immediately to the operating room for surgical repairAnswer
- BObtain a computed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- CAdminister intravenous esmolol to strictly control heart rate and blood pressure
- DPostpone surgical consultation until a complete blood count confirms an acute drop in hemoglobin
- EPerform an image-guided diagnostic paracentesis to analyze the intraperitoneal fluid