A 64-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department reporting sudden, severe right leg pain that began 2 hours ago. She admits to running out of her prescribed anticoagulant medication three weeks ago. Vital signs include a blood pressure of and a heart rate of with an irregularly irregular rhythm. Physical examination of the right lower extremity reveals a cold, pale leg with visible mottling. There is complete loss of light touch sensation over the dorsum of the foot, and the patient is unable to dorsiflex her toes. Palpation reveals a strong right femoral pulse, but popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses are absent. Bedside continuous-wave Doppler ultrasound demonstrates absent arterial signals but audible venous signals in the right foot. Which of the following interventions are indicated in the immediate management of this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Initiate an intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparinAnswer
- Prepare the patient for urgent operative thromboembolectomyAnswer
- CObtain a computed tomography angiography of the lower extremities
- DSchedule the patient for primary major limb amputation
- EAdminister a loading dose of oral rivaroxaban