A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for a 3-week history of progressively worsening lower back pain. The pain is continuous, wakes him up at night, and is not relieved by rest or over-the-counter analgesics. He also reports intermittent chills. Medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus and a recent hospitalization one month ago for a complicated urinary tract infection. Temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Physical examination reveals focal tenderness to percussion over the lower lumbar spine. Neurological examination of the lower extremities shows full strength, intact sensation, and normal deep tendon reflexes. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 85 mm/h and C-reactive protein of 45 mg/L. Blood cultures are drawn. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the lumbar spine with and without gadolinium contrast reveals decreased signal intensity on T1-weighted images and increased signal intensity on T2-weighted images involving the L4 and L5 vertebral bodies. There is destruction of the intervening L4-L5 intervertebral disc with enhancement of the disc space and adjacent vertebral endplates. No epidural fluid collection or spinal cord compression is visualized.
Based on the interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- CT-guided needle biopsy of the affected intervertebral disc and boneAnswer
- BImmediate administration of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- CUrgent surgical decompression and debridement
- DMeasurement of serum prostate-specific antigen and testosterone levels
- ERepeating the MRI of the lumbar spine in 4 to 6 weeks