A 54-year-old woman with acute myeloid leukemia develops a fever of () and profound neutropenia days after receiving induction chemotherapy. Blood cultures are drawn and subsequently grow an oxidase-positive, non-lactose fermenting Gram-negative bacillus. Initial antimicrobial susceptibility testing demonstrates that the isolate is susceptible to cefepime, imipenem, and amikacin. She is initiated on intravenous imipenem-cilastatin, and her fever resolves within hours. On day of antimicrobial therapy, she develops recurrent fevers, chills, and hypotension. Repeat blood cultures grow the same organism. However, the new isolate demonstrates high-level resistance to imipenem while remaining fully susceptible to both cefepime and amikacin. Which of the following is the most likely molecular mechanism responsible for this pathogen's new resistance profile?
- Decreased expression of an outer membrane channel proteinAnswer
- BUpregulation of a membrane-spanning active transport complex
- CAcquisition of a zinc-dependent hydrolytic enzyme
- DStructural modification of a transpeptidase target
- ECovalent modification of the antimicrobial via adenylation