A 60-year-old male is evaluated in the surgical critical care unit due to rapidly worsening groin pain and hemodynamic instability. He was admitted earlier today with a presumed diagnosis of severe scrotal cellulitis. His past medical history includes long-standing, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Current vital signs include a temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F), heart rate of 128/min, blood pressure of 82/50 mm Hg, and respiratory rate of 26/min. The patient is lethargic but moans during the examination. The genitourinary exam reveals induration, violaceous discoloration, and palpable crepitus extending from the perineum into the lower anterior abdominal wall. A foul-smelling, dishwater-like fluid is seeping from a small ulceration on the scrotum. Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and aggressive fluid resuscitation are currently being administered. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- Immediate transfer to the operating room for radical surgical debridementAnswer
- CBedside incision and drainage using local anesthesia
- DAddition of intravenous hyperbaric oxygen therapy to the current medical regimen
- EPlacement of an indwelling urinary catheter and continued observation