A 24-year-old man presents to the ambulatory care clinic with a painful swelling on his left thigh that has been enlarging over the past 4 days. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals a 3-cm, markedly tender, erythematous, and fluctuant nodule on the anterior left thigh. There is no surrounding induration or purulent drainage, and the patient reports no systemic symptoms such as chills or body aches. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Incision and drainageAnswer
- BMagnetic resonance imaging of the thigh
- CInpatient admission and intravenous vancomycin
- DAdministration of oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- EMeasurement of prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time
Answer
Incision and drainage
The correct answer is incision and drainage. The patient presents with an uncomplicated cutaneous abscess, characterized by a localized, fluctuant, and tender nodule without systemic signs of infection or extensive surrounding cellulitis. The primary and definitive treatment for a simple abscess is incision and drainage to achieve source control. In healthy individuals, thorough drainage alone is typically sufficient and systemic antibiotics are generally not required.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Primary treatment of an uncomplicated cutaneous abscess