A 42-year-old family physician is the medical director of a busy outpatient practice. At the end of the workday, the clinic's 38-year-old office manager approaches him in his private office. She states that she has been experiencing severe stress, palpitations, and difficulty sleeping over the past month due to a sudden illness in her family. She asks if he could write a quick prescription for a short course of an anxiolytic medication, explaining that her regular primary care provider has no available appointments for the next three weeks and she is struggling to function at work. She has no known past medical history and is not an established patient at the practice. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the physician?
- Decline the request and recommend that she seek evaluation at an urgent care center or with another clinicianAnswer
- BPrescribe a one-week supply of the requested medication to provide relief until her scheduled appointment
- CPerform a focused evaluation in the office and prescribe the medication only if no clinical contraindications are identified
- DAgree to prescribe the medication under the condition that she officially registers as a patient at the practice
- EProvide the prescription but require her to sign a waiver acknowledging the informal nature of the medical advice