A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden, severe pain in his right leg that began 2 hours ago. He describes the leg as feeling "numb and heavy." His medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and atrial fibrillation. He states he ran out of his prescribed apixaban two weeks ago. His vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 156/92 mm Hg, pulse 118/min and irregularly irregular, and respirations 16/min. Physical examination of the right lower extremity reveals pallor and coolness to the touch from the mid-calf down. The right dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are absent on both palpation and continuous-wave Doppler ultrasound. He has decreased sensation to light touch over the dorsum of the right foot and exhibits mild weakness when asked to dorsiflex his toes. The left lower extremity is warm with normal pulses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Emergent surgical embolectomyAnswer
- BMagnetic resonance angiography of the lower extremities
- CApplication of a local heating pad to the right leg
- DMeasurement of serum D-dimer levels
- EAdmission to a general medical unit for initiation of oral anticoagulation