A 28-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to sudden-onset, severe left lower quadrant abdominal pain that started 2 hours ago. She reports associated dizziness, lightheadedness, and mild vaginal spotting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 88/56 mm Hg, a heart rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 20/min. Physical examination reveals a pale appearing patient with diffuse lower abdominal tenderness, guarding, and rebound tenderness. A bedside urine pregnancy test is positive. A transvaginal ultrasound is immediately performed and demonstrates an empty uterine cavity, a 4-cm complex left adnexal mass, and a large volume of echogenic free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac. Based on the interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Emergent diagnostic laparoscopyAnswer
- BAdministration of intramuscular methotrexate
- CComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- DSerial quantitative serum beta-human chorionic gonadotropin testing
- EDischarge home with scheduled outpatient pelvic ultrasound