A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for a new onset of fever and increased purulent respiratory secretions. He was admitted ago for a perforated diverticulum requiring emergency exploratory laparotomy and has been dependent on mechanical ventilation since the procedure. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals coarse crackles at the right lung base. A chest radiograph demonstrates a new right lower lobe consolidation. Endotracheal aspirate cultures grow oxidase-positive, non-lactose fermenting, Gram-negative bacilli. The patient is started on intravenous imipenem-cilastatin therapy. Initial susceptibility testing shows the isolate is susceptible to imipenem, meropenem, cefepime, and amikacin. Five days later, the patient develops a recurrent fever and worsening oxygenation. Repeat sputum cultures grow the same organism. However, this time the isolate is reported as resistant to imipenem, while remaining completely susceptible to meropenem, cefepime, and amikacin. Which of the following best describes the molecular mechanism responsible for this pathogen's acquired resistance to the prescribed therapy?
- AProduction of a plasmid-mediated zinc-dependent hydrolase
- BGenetic alteration of the active site in cell wall synthesizing enzymes
- Downregulation of a specific outer membrane diffusion channelAnswer
- DUpregulation of a membrane-spanning active efflux pump complex
- ECovalent modification of the antimicrobial agent via acetylation