Question

An otherwise healthy 45-year-old woman arrives at the acute care clinic with sudden-onset, excruciating periumbilical pain and unremitting vomiting. Over the past 14 hours, her emesis has transitioned from clear fluid to bilious material. She reports no passage of flatus or stool since the symptoms commenced. Her medical and surgical histories are unremarkable. On initial triage, her temperature is 38.0°C (100.4°F), heart rate is 118/min, blood pressure is 108/65 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Physical examination demonstrates an asymmetrically distended abdomen featuring a prominent, tympanitic mass that spans from the right lower quadrant toward the epigastrium. Auscultation reveals high-pitched, tinkling bowel sounds. Initial laboratory analysis shows a leukocyte count of 14,200/mm³ and a serum lactate concentration of 3.1 mmol/L (Normal: 0.5-2.2 mmol/L). An urgent computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows a massively dilated cecum flipped into the upper abdomen, accompanied by a twisting of the mesenteric vessels and a fully collapsed distal colon. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?