A 62-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to sudden-onset, severe chest pain that radiates to his back. He describes the pain as "tearing" in nature. His medical history is significant for long-standing, poorly controlled hypertension. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), heart rate is 105/min, and blood pressure is 185/110 mmHg in the right arm and 145/90 mmHg in the left arm. A chest radiograph demonstrates a widened mediastinum. A subsequent contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest reveals an intimal flap separating a true and false lumen. The intimal flap originates just distal to the left subclavian artery and extends down the descending thoracic aorta. There is absolutely no involvement of the ascending aorta or the aortic arch. Based on the interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most accurate diagnosis?
- AStanford type A aortic dissection
- BPulmonary embolism
- CThoracic aortic aneurysm
- Stanford type B aortic dissectionAnswer
- EEsophageal perforation