A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden-onset, severe, tearing pain between his shoulder blades that began 1 hour ago. He has a history of poorly controlled hypertension. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 185/110 mm Hg in the right arm and 180/108 mm Hg in the left arm, heart rate is 112/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Physical examination reveals normal heart sounds with no murmurs, clear lungs, and equal pulses in all four extremities. An electrocardiogram reveals sinus tachycardia without ST-segment changes. A contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest is performed. The scan demonstrates an intimal flap separating a true and false lumen, which begins just distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery and extends into the descending thoracic aorta. The ascending aorta and aortic arch appear completely normal. Based on the interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administration of intravenous labetalolAnswer
- BUrgent open surgical repair of the aorta
- CAdministration of intravenous heparin
- DTransesophageal echocardiography
- EDischarge home with oral antihypertensives and outpatient follow-up