A 76-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from a nursing facility due to progressive abdominal distension, severe cramping abdominal pain, and failure to pass stool or flatus for the past 3 days. His medical history is notable for Parkinson disease, chronic constipation, and hypertension. His daily medications include carbidopa-levodopa, lisinopril, and an osmotic laxative.
His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 138/82 mm Hg, heart rate is 88/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min.
Physical examination reveals a markedly distended abdomen that is tympanitic to percussion. The abdomen is mildly tender diffusely but lacks rebound tenderness, rigidity, or guarding. Bowel sounds are absent.
An upright plain abdominal radiograph demonstrates a massively dilated loop of colon extending from the left lower quadrant toward the right upper quadrant, adopting a "coffee bean" appearance. There is no evidence of pneumoperitoneum.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Flexible sigmoidoscopyAnswer
- BExploratory laparotomy
- CIntravenous neostigmine
- DComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- EDischarge to the nursing facility with an aggressive bowel regimen