A -year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to progressive confusion, frequent falls, and a slow, shuffling gait that has worsened over the past three weeks. His medical history includes hypertension, mild cognitive impairment, and coronary artery disease, for which he takes aspirin and lisinopril. Vital signs are within normal limits. Neurological examination reveals a delayed response to questions, mild left-sided hemiparesis, and a pronator drift in the left arm. A non-contrast head CT is performed. The preliminary interpretation by the radiology resident states 'no acute intracranial hemorrhage; normal age-related volume loss.' However, your careful review of the images reveals unilateral effacement of the cortical sulci over the right cerebral hemisphere, medial displacement of the gray-white matter junction, and a -mm leftward midline shift. The extra-axial space over the right convexity shares the exact same radiodensity (attenuation) as the adjacent cerebral cortex.
Based on your interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in patient management?
- Consult neurosurgery for management of a subacute subdural hematomaAnswer
- BOrder an emergent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain to evaluate for ischemic stroke
- CPerform a high-volume lumbar puncture to assess for normal pressure hydrocephalus
- DDischarge the patient with a referral to physical therapy for age-related gait instability
- EAdminister intravenous alteplase and admit to the neuro-intensive care unit