A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to the sudden onset of severe, tearing abdominal and back pain that began 30 minutes ago. He has a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 5.5-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) that has been monitored with annual ultrasounds. His current medications include lisinopril and atorvastatin. On arrival, he is lethargic, pale, and diaphoretic. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 72/42 mmHg, heart rate is 128/min, and respiratory rate is 24/min. Physical examination reveals a tender, pulsatile periumbilical mass. Femoral pulses are weak bilaterally. Two large-bore intravenous lines are established. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate transfer to the operating room for surgical repairAnswer
- BCT angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- CIntravenous esmolol infusion
- DBedside abdominal ultrasonography
- EAggressive fluid resuscitation to a systolic blood pressure > 120 mmHg