A 45-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to a severe headache, confusion, and a witnessed generalized tonic-clonic seizure. She has a history of poorly controlled hypertension and medication non-adherence. On arrival, her blood pressure is 225/125 mm Hg, heart rate is 105/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. She is postictal and somnolent.
After initial airway protection, an expedited MRI of the brain is performed due to the institution's stroke protocol. The MRI demonstrates the following specific findings:
- T2-weighted and fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) sequences show symmetric, bilateral, confluent areas of hyperintensity in the subcortical white matter of the parietal and occipital lobes.
- Diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI) shows iso-intensity to mild hyperintensity in the corresponding regions.
- Apparent diffusion coefficient (ADC) mapping reveals marked hyperintensity in these same parieto-occipital areas.
Based on the interpretation of these imaging results, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Continuous intravenous infusion of nicardipineAnswer
- BIntravenous administration of alteplase
- CConventional digital subtraction angiography
- DIntravenous administration of high-dose methylprednisolone
- ELumbar puncture with cerebrospinal fluid analysis