A 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of left calf pain and swelling that began two days ago. Venous duplex ultrasonography confirms a deep vein thrombosis. Her medical history is significant for an unprovoked pulmonary embolism 3 years ago and one pregnancy that ended in fetal demise at 14 weeks gestation. She currently takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits.
Laboratory results:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| White blood cell count | ||
| Hemoglobin | ||
| Platelet count | ||
| Prothrombin time (PT) | ||
| Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) |
A mixing study is performed, in which the patient's plasma is combined 1:1 with pooled normal plasma. The immediate aPTT of the mixture is , and the aPTT after a 2-hour incubation remains .
Based on the interpretation of these laboratory results, which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's prolonged aPTT?
- In vitro assay interference by autoantibodies targeting phospholipid-protein complexesAnswer
- BAcquired neutralizing autoantibodies directed against coagulation Factor VIII
- CInherited deficiency of an intrinsic pathway coagulation factor
- DSystemic activation of the coagulation cascade leading to factor consumption
- EImpaired hepatic synthesis of vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors