An emergency physician evaluates a 62-year-old man who reports three days of progressively worsening left lower abdominal pain accompanied by fever and chills. His medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medications. His temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F), blood pressure is 134/82 mm Hg, pulse is 105/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Physical examination demonstrates marked tenderness and guarding over the left lower quadrant, but the abdomen is otherwise soft without diffuse rigidity or generalized rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 16,500/mm³ with 82% neutrophils. A contrast-enhanced computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals inflammatory changes adjacent to the sigmoid colon, complicated by a well-defined, 5.2-cm unilocular pericolic fluid collection with an enhancing rim. There is no evidence of free intraperitoneal air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Image-guided percutaneous drainageAnswer
- BExploratory laparotomy with sigmoid resection and end colostomy
- CIntravenous antibiotics and observation
- DColonoscopy with evaluation of the sigmoid colon
- EMagnetic resonance imaging of the abdomen and pelvis