A 68-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department reporting sudden, severe pain in her left leg that began 4 hours ago. She has a history of rheumatic mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation, but she has not taken her prescribed warfarin for the past two weeks. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 142/86 mmHg, and pulse is 110/min and irregularly irregular. Physical examination of the left lower extremity reveals absent popliteal and pedal pulses using a handheld Doppler ultrasound. The left leg is cold, pale, and exhibits livedo reticularis extending up to the mid-thigh. The patient has profound loss of light touch sensation over the foot and is unable to actively dorsiflex her toes. Venous Doppler signals in the left foot are audible. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous heparin and emergent open surgical embolectomyAnswer
- BComputed tomography angiography of the lower extremities
- CCatheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolytic therapy
- DIntravenous heparin and close inpatient observation
- EEmergent primary above-knee amputation