An emergency medical team transports a 35-year-old man to the hospital after he suddenly lost the ability to move his legs this morning. He reports severe, unremitting mid-back pain that has progressively worsened over the past three weeks. He has a history of intravenous heroin use. He notes that he has not been able to urinate for the past 14 hours. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse is 112/min, and blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg. Neurologic examination reveals flaccid paralysis of both lower extremities with absent patellar and Achilles reflexes. Sensation to pinprick and temperature is absent below the umbilicus. Rectal examination demonstrates absent sphincter tone. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 19,500/mm³ and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 85 mm/h. Magnetic resonance imaging of the spine reveals a large, peripherally enhancing epidural fluid collection extending from T8 to T11 with severe compression of the spinal cord. Blood cultures are drawn, and empiric broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics are initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AImage-guided percutaneous needle aspiration
- BAdministration of high-dose intravenous dexamethasone
- CTransfer to the intensive care unit for frequent neurologic monitoring
- Urgent surgical decompression and debridementAnswer
- EComputed tomography angiography of the aorta