A 34-year-old man is evaluated in the surgical telemetry unit hours after undergoing intramedullary nailing of a closed midshaft tibial fracture. He complains of rapidly worsening left leg pain that is no longer relieved by his prescribed intravenous morphine. He describes the pain as a severe, deep aching sensation. On examination, the patient appears uncomfortable and diaphoretic. Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , heart rate of , and respiratory rate of . The left lower leg is significantly swollen, tense, and exquisitely tender to palpation. Passive dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of the toes elicit excruciating pain. Dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are palpable and symmetric bilaterally. Capillary refill is less than seconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Perform a four-compartment fasciotomy of the lower legAnswer
- BMeasure anterior compartment pressure with a handheld manometer
- CElevate the affected extremity above the level of the heart
- DOrder a lower extremity venous duplex ultrasound
- EIncrease the dose of intravenous opioids and reevaluate in one hour