A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic with a painful, swollen, and red area on his right forearm. The lesion has been progressively worsening over the past 3 days. He has a history of injection drug use. Physical examination reveals a 4-cm erythematous, fluctuant nodule with surrounding induration and warmth. The abscess is incised and drained, yielding thick, purulent material. A Gram stain of the exudate shows Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The patient is prescribed oral cephalexin and discharged. Two days later, he returns to the emergency department with expanding erythema extending up to his elbow, worsening pain, and a new fever of 38.6°C (101.5°F). Subsequent culture results confirm the presence of an organism that is resistant to oxacillin. Which of the following best describes the molecular mechanism responsible for this pathogen's resistance to the initial outpatient antibiotic therapy?
- Acquisition of a mobile genetic element encoding a variant peptidoglycan transpeptidaseAnswer
- BPlasmid-mediated production of an enzyme that hydrolyzes the cyclic amide bond of the antibiotic
- CChromosomal upregulation of a transmembrane complex that actively expels the drug
- DDownregulation of outer membrane channel proteins leading to decreased intracellular drug accumulation
- EEnzymatic methylation of a ribosomal RNA binding site