A young adult male is brought to the emergency department following an off-road motorcycle collision that resulted in a highly contaminated open fracture of the right tibia. He undergoes prompt surgical debridement and receives tetanus prophylaxis along with empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics. Approximately 36 hours post-operation, he develops excruciating pain at the surgical site that is out of proportion to the visible signs of inflammation. Examination of the leg reveals marked edema, a bronze-colored cutaneous discoloration, and palpable crepitus in the surrounding tissues. Gram stain of a serosanguineous exudate from the wound demonstrates large Gram-positive bacilli with blunt ends and a notable absence of polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Which of the following best describes the molecular mechanism of the primary virulence factor responsible for this patient's rapidly progressive tissue destruction?
- Degradation of cellular membrane phospholipids resulting in widespread cytolysisAnswer
- BADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2 leading to the cessation of protein synthesis
- CProteolytic cleavage of SNARE proteins resulting in blockade of neurotransmitter release
- DEnzymatic glycosylation of Rho-family GTPases causing actin cytoskeletal disruption
- EWidespread cross-linking of T-cell receptors to major histocompatibility complex class II molecules