A 65-year-old man with a history of a mechanical aortic valve replacement is hospitalized for a 2-week history of low-grade fever, fatigue, and night sweats. Physical examination reveals a new diastolic murmur and splinter hemorrhages on his fingernails. Multiple sets of blood cultures grow Enterococcus faecalis. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing indicates that the isolate is susceptible to ampicillin but exhibits high-level resistance to gentamicin (minimum inhibitory concentration > 500 µg/mL). The infectious disease team determines that the standard ampicillin and gentamicin synergistic combination will not be effective. Which of the following is the most likely molecular mechanism underlying this pathogen's resistance to the aminoglycoside?
- Covalent transfer of chemical groups to the antibiotic moleculeAnswer
- BAlteration of the terminal amino acids in cell wall precursors
- CActive extrusion of the medication via membrane transport proteins
- DEnzymatic hydrolysis of the antimicrobial's central cyclic ring
- ETarget site modification through methylation of the ribosomal RNA