While covering the triage desk, a physician evaluates a 28-year-old G2P1 patient who reports the abrupt onset of excruciating right-sided pelvic pain and light vaginal bleeding. The symptoms started approximately one hour ago. She notes her last menstrual period was seven weeks prior. On evaluation, she is lethargic, pale, and actively shivering. Vital signs demonstrate a blood pressure of 76/40 mm Hg, a heart rate of 142/min, and a respiratory rate of 24/min. Abdominal examination is significant for diffuse rigidity, severe right lower quadrant tenderness, and marked guarding. A rapid bedside urine human chorionic gonadotropin test is positive. Two large-bore intravenous lines are immediately placed for crystalloid resuscitation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next procedural or management step?
- Urgent surgical abdominal explorationAnswer
- BTransvaginal pelvic ultrasonography
- CAdministration of intramuscular methotrexate
- DComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- EAdmission to the intensive care unit for serial hemoglobin monitoring