A -year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his family due to a rapidly expanding, painful swelling in his right thigh over the past hours. He denies any significant trauma, reporting only a minor bump against a doorway. His medical history is significant for rheumatoid arthritis and hypertension. Current medications include methotrexate, amlodipine, and occasionally ibuprofen.
Vital signs show a temperature of (), heart rate of /min, blood pressure of mmHg, and respiratory rate of /min. Physical examination reveals a massive, tense, ecchymotic hematoma encompassing the right posterior thigh.
Laboratory studies are obtained:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | g/dL | g/dL |
| Platelet count | ||
| Prothrombin time (PT) | s | s |
| Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) | s | s |
| Fibrinogen | mg/dL | mg/dL |
A mixing study is performed using a ratio of the patient's plasma and normal pooled plasma. The aPTT immediately corrects to s. However, after incubation at for hours, the aPTT prolongs to s.
The patient remains tachycardic, and the hematoma appears to be enlarging. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the most appropriate immediate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- Directly activates factor X on the surface of activated platelets independent of the intrinsic tenase complexAnswer
- BAdministers a bispecific monoclonal antibody that bridges activated factor IX and factor X to substitute for the missing cofactor
- CProvides a concentrated source of the deficient procoagulant glycoprotein to competitively saturate circulating neutralizing antibodies
- DReplenishes non-activated vitamin K-dependent factors to rapidly restore the common coagulation pathway
- EStimulates endothelial Weibel-Palade bodies to release stored von Willebrand factor and endogenous factor VIII