Tüm alıştırma soruları

2933 soru

Soru 1961Soru →

A 6-year-old6\text{-year-old} client weighing 55 lb55\text{ lb} is admitted to the pediatric unit with a soft tissue infection. The client's vital signs are temperature 100.8∘F100.8^\circ\text{F} (38.2∘C38.2^\circ\text{C}), heart rate 110 beats/min110\text{ beats/min}, and blood pressure 98/64 mm Hg98/64\text{ mm Hg}. The client has no known drug allergies. The healthcare provider prescribes oral cephalexin 25 mg/kg/day25\text{ mg/kg/day} divided into two equal doses every 12 hours12\text{ hours}. The medication available is cephalexin oral suspension 250 mg/5 mL250\text{ mg}/5\text{ mL}. How many mL\text{mL} should the practical nurse administer per dose? (Record answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in answer.)

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Cevap: 6.3

Cevap

6.3
To safely administer this medication, the nurse must accurately compute a multi-step calculation. First, convert the child's weight to kilograms (55 lb÷2.2=25 kg55\text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 25\text{ kg}). Next, determine the total daily dose by multiplying the weight by the prescribed rate (25 kg×25 mg/kg=625 mg/day25\text{ kg} \times 25\text{ mg/kg} = 625\text{ mg/day}). Because the medication is divided into two equal doses given every 12 hours12\text{ hours}, divide the daily dose by 2 (625 mg÷2=312.5 mg/dose625\text{ mg} \div 2 = 312.5\text{ mg/dose}). Using dimensional analysis or the ratio-proportion method with the available concentration of 250 mg250\text{ mg} in 5 mL5\text{ mL}, the volume is calculated: (312.5 mg÷250 mg)×5 mL=6.25 mL(312.5\text{ mg} \div 250\text{ mg}) \times 5\text{ mL} = 6.25\text{ mL}. Following the instruction to record the answer to the nearest tenth, 6.256.25 rounds up to 6.36.3.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert weight from pounds to kilograms.
25 kg25\text{ kg}
Pediatric weight-based dosages are calculated using metric weight.
2
Calculate the total daily dose prescribed.
625 mg/day625\text{ mg/day}
The prescription is for 25 mg/kg/day25\text{ mg/kg/day}.
3
Calculate the individual dose amount.
312.5 mg/dose312.5\text{ mg/dose}
The daily dose is divided into two equal doses given every 12 hours.
4
Calculate the volume needed per dose.
6.25 mL6.25\text{ mL}
The medication concentration is 250 mg250\text{ mg} per 5 mL5\text{ mL}.
5
Round the final volume to the nearest tenth.
6.3
Standard rounding rules dictate that a hundredths digit of 5 rounds the tenths digit up.

Anahtar Kavram

Pediatric Weight-Based Dosage Calculation
Soru 1962Soru →

A client who underwent a right above-the-knee amputation 36 hours ago is receiving care on the surgical unit. Which actions should the practical nurse include in the client's care plan to promote comfort, maintain skin integrity, and prevent complications? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Position the client in a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes three to four times a day.; Wash the residual limb with mild soap and warm water, gently patting it completely dry.; Encourage the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises with the unaffected extremities.

Cevap

The correct actions are positioning the client prone for 20 to 30 minutes several times daily, washing the residual limb gently with mild soap and water, and encouraging active range-of-motion exercises for the unaffected extremities.
After the first 24 hours following an amputation, prone positioning for short intervals is crucial to prevent hip flexion contractures. Proper hygiene, such as washing with mild soap and patting the skin dry, maintains skin integrity. Active range-of-motion exercises for the unaffected limbs prevent muscle deconditioning and promote overall physical mobility.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's surgical procedure (above-the-knee amputation) and the timeframe (36 hours postoperative).
The client is past the initial 24-hour acute swelling phase and is at high risk for hip flexion contractures.
Care priorities shift from purely managing acute postoperative swelling to preventing long-term mobility complications.
2
Evaluate positioning interventions to prevent contractures.
Prone positioning is identified as beneficial, while elevating the limb on pillows or prolonged sitting is contraindicated.
After 24 hours, keeping the hip flexed (via pillows or sitting) causes the muscles to shorten, whereas prone positioning stretches them out.
3
Evaluate basic hygiene and skin care interventions.
Washing the residual limb with mild soap and patting it dry is selected as a correct action.
Proper hygiene maintains skin integrity without causing mechanical irritation to the surgical site.
4
Evaluate mobility interventions for the rest of the body.
Active range-of-motion exercises for unaffected limbs are selected as a correct action.
Strengthening the unaffected limbs prevents deconditioning and is critical for the client's future ability to perform transfers and use assistive devices.
5
Evaluate nutritional and holistic comfort interventions.
Ignoring cultural dietary preferences is identified as incorrect.
Providing adequate and culturally appropriate nutrition is a fundamental aspect of basic care.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care, comfort, and proper positioning to prevent complications following an above-the-knee amputation.
Soru 1963Soru →

During a shift on a medical-surgical unit, a provider prescribes 'Regular insulin 8 units intravenous (IV) push immediately' for a client experiencing severe hyperglycemia. The available medication vial is labeled 'Regular insulin 100 units/mL'. What is the most appropriate action for the practical nurse to take?

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Cevap: Decline the task and notify the registered nurse that administering IV push medications exceeds the practical nurse scope of practice.

Cevap

The practical nurse should decline the task and notify the registered nurse that administering IV push medications exceeds their scope of practice.
The correct action is to decline the task and hand it over to the registered nurse. According to standard national nursing regulations, administering medications via the intravenous (IV) push route is strictly outside the scope of practice for a practical nurse (PN/LVN). This rule is especially critical for high-alert medications like insulin, which can cause rapid, life-threatening changes in the client's condition. The PN must recognize this limitation to maintain client safety and legal compliance.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the prescribed medication and the requested route of administration.
The provider has ordered 8 units of regular insulin to be given via intravenous (IV) push.
Identifying the specific medication and route is the first step in ensuring safe medication administration.
2
Evaluate the requested task against the legal scope of practice for a practical nurse (PN/LVN).
Administration of IV push medications is restricted to registered nurses (RNs) and providers.
National nursing standards prohibit practical nurses from administering IV push medications due to the rapid onset of action and the advanced clinical judgment required.
3
Determine the safest and most legally compliant action.
The nurse must safely decline the order and immediately escalate the task to the registered nurse.
Protecting the client from unsafe practices and adhering to licensure limitations is the primary responsibility of the nurse.

Anahtar Kavram

Practical Nurse Scope of Practice regarding Intravenous Medications
Soru 1964Soru →

A semi-conscious client who underwent a supratentorial craniotomy two days ago receives continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. The nurse is preparing to perform a complete bed bath, linen change, and repositioning to maintain skin integrity. Which of the following actions represents the safest approach for providing this care?

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Cevap: Pausing the continuous enteral feeding infusion prior to lowering the head of the bed to turn the client

Cevap

The safest action is to pause the continuous enteral feeding infusion before lowering the head of the bed.
When a client is receiving continuous enteral nutrition, the head of the bed must remain elevated to at least 30 degrees to prevent regurgitation and aspiration. Because a complete linen change and repositioning require temporarily lowering the head of the bed to safely turn the client side-to-side, the nurse must first pause the feeding infusion. Furthermore, for a client who is recovering from a supratentorial craniotomy, keeping the head elevated promotes venous drainage and prevents increased intracranial pressure. Pausing the feeding before executing any flat positioning is the most critical physiological safety measure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's specific risk factors based on the clinical scenario.
The client is semi-conscious, recovering from a craniotomy, and receiving continuous enteral nutrition.
These factors place the client at high risk for aspiration and increased intracranial pressure if positioned incorrectly.
2
Evaluate the physical requirements of the planned basic care procedure.
A complete bed bath and linen change typically require lowering the head of the bed to safely turn and roll the client.
Performing physical turns and linen changes is difficult and often unsafe for the nurse's body mechanics when the bed remains highly elevated.
3
Synthesize the physiological risks with the procedural requirements to determine the priority safety action.
Because the head of the bed must be lowered, the continuous feeding pump must be temporarily stopped.
Lowering the head of the bed while a tube feeding is actively infusing removes gravity's protective effect, dramatically increasing the risk of regurgitation and pulmonary aspiration.

Anahtar Kavram

Aspiration Prevention and Safe Positioning
Soru 1965Soru →

An individual receiving care at an occupational health clinic mentions to the practical nurse, "I stopped wearing my fall-protection harness at the construction site. It is just too restrictive and limits my ability to move quickly." Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate?

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Cevap: "Tell me more about how the harness restricts your movement while you are working."

Cevap

The most appropriate response is to ask the client to explain more about how the harness restricts their movement while working.
The correct response utilizes the therapeutic communication technique of exploring to gather more data about the client's high-risk behavior. This encourages open dialogue without judgment, allowing the nurse to understand the root cause of the non-compliance before collaborating with the registered nurse or provider on a focused safety teaching plan.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the high-risk behavior presented by the client.
The client is actively choosing not to wear necessary fall-protection gear at a construction site, creating a severe safety risk.
Recognizing the risk is the first step in formulating a safe and effective nursing response.
2
Evaluate the nurse's immediate role and scope of practice regarding this behavior.
The practical nurse needs to gather more information about the barrier to compliance using therapeutic communication.
Before education or interventions can occur, the nurse must understand the root cause of the non-compliance without alienating the client.
3
Select the response that promotes dialogue and remains within the practical nursing scope.
Exploring the client's feelings about the restrictive harness gathers necessary data respectfully.
Open-ended, non-judgmental exploration builds trust and facilitates further health promotion teaching.

Anahtar Kavram

High Risk Behaviors
Soru 1966Soru →

While providing morning care in a subacute rehabilitation facility, a practical nurse notes that an 84-year-old client recovering from a hip replacement has suddenly become restless, is continuously pulling at their clothing, and is unable to answer simple questions. The client was alert and conversant the day before. Which conclusion is most appropriate for the nurse to make?

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Cevap: The client is exhibiting signs of delirium, an acute and potentially reversible state that often indicates an underlying physical complication.

Cevap

The client is exhibiting signs of delirium, an acute and potentially reversible state that often indicates an underlying physical complication.
The correct answer identifies that a sudden change in mental status, such as restlessness and confusion, is a primary indicator of delirium. In older adults, delirium is often an atypical presentation of a physiological stressor, such as an infection (e.g., urinary tract infection or pneumonia), hypoxia, uncontrolled pain, or an adverse medication reaction. It is an acute, reversible condition that requires prompt identification and treatment of the underlying cause.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the onset and nature of the client's symptoms.
The client is experiencing a sudden, acute change in mental status (restlessness, inability to answer questions) compared to their baseline the previous day.
Differentiating between acute (sudden) and chronic (gradual) cognitive changes is essential for identifying life-threatening complications.
2
Relate the findings to the aging process and atypical disease presentation.
Older adults frequently present atypically when experiencing physical stressors like infections, pain, or medication reactions, often manifesting as acute confusion or delirium.
Recognizing delirium ensures the nurse advocates for prompt medical evaluation rather than dismissing the symptoms as normal aging.
3
Determine the most appropriate conclusion within the practical nursing scope of practice.
The nurse correctly identifies the condition as a sign of an underlying complication and prepares to report the findings, avoiding out-of-scope practices or premature restraint use.
Adhering to scope of practice and safety protocols ensures the client receives appropriate, timely, and safe care.

Anahtar Kavram

Atypical Presentation of Illness in Older Adults
Soru 1967Soru →

A client is admitted to the behavioral health unit for treatment of severe anxiety and obsessive-compulsive behaviors. During the admission data collection, the client repeatedly organizes the items on the bedside table and avoids eye contact. The client abruptly says, "If everything isn't perfectly straight, something terrible is going to happen to my family." Which response by the practical nurse demonstrates the most appropriate therapeutic communication?

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Cevap: It must be very exhausting to feel like you have to keep everything in perfect order to keep your family safe.

Cevap

The most appropriate response is the one that validates the client's feelings by stating how exhausting it must be to feel the need to keep everything in perfect order.
The correct response utilizes empathy and validation. By acknowledging the client's underlying feelings of exhaustion and fear without judging the compulsion itself, the nurse builds trust and encourages further open communication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's statement and behavior.
The client is expressing severe anxiety and an irrational fear connected to their compulsive behavior of organizing items.
Identifying the underlying emotion and distress is the first step in choosing a therapeutic and supportive response.
2
Evaluate the communication choices against therapeutic techniques.
Select the option that uses empathy and validation while avoiding non-therapeutic blocks such as giving advice, asking 'why' questions, or offering false reassurance.
Therapeutic communication requires acknowledging feelings without judging, probing unnecessarily, or dismissing the client's reality.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication
Soru 1968Soru →

A client with a documented history of severe asthma is receiving care on a medical-surgical unit. The practical nurse is preparing to administer scheduled morning medications, which includes a new prescription for oral propranolol to manage a familial tremor. During the pre-administration assessment, the client's vital signs are: blood pressure 132/84 mm Hg, heart rate 86 beats/min, and respiratory rate 18 breaths/min. The nurse notes faint expiratory wheezes upon auscultation. What is the most appropriate action for the practical nurse to take?

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Cevap: Withhold the propranolol and immediately notify the registered nurse of the assessment findings.

Cevap

The correct action is to withhold the medication and immediately notify the registered nurse of the client's respiratory status.
Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker, meaning it blocks both beta-1 (cardiac) and beta-2 (pulmonary) receptors. The blockade of beta-2 receptors leads directly to bronchoconstriction. In a client with a history of severe asthma who is already exhibiting wheezes, administering this medication can precipitate a severe, potentially life-threatening asthma attack. Safe pharmacological practice requires the practical nurse to withhold the contraindicated medication and escalate the finding to the registered nurse for intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the pharmacological classification of the prescribed medication.
Propranolol is recognized as a non-selective beta-adrenergic antagonist (beta-blocker).
Understanding the drug class is essential to anticipate its systemic physiological effects on both the heart and lungs.
2
Analyze the client's medical history and current physical assessment findings.
The client has a history of severe asthma and is currently exhibiting faint expiratory wheezes.
Identifying pre-existing respiratory compromise is a critical pre-administration safety check.
3
Correlate the medication's mechanism of action with the client's respiratory condition.
Non-selective beta-blockers cause bronchoconstriction by blocking beta-2 receptors in the lungs, which is contraindicated for asthmatic clients.
This synthesis determines if the medication is safe to administer or if it will cause an adverse event.
4
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention within the practical nurse scope of practice.
The medication must be withheld and the findings escalated to the RN and the prescribing provider.
Practical nurses are responsible for recognizing severe contraindications and withholding harmful medications to prevent client injury.

Anahtar Kavram

Non-selective beta-blockers (like propranolol) are strictly contraindicated in clients with asthma due to the high risk of severe bronchoconstriction; the practical nurse must recognize this, withhold the drug, and report it.
Soru 1969Soru →

While caring for a client who had an open appendectomy 4 hours ago, the practical nurse reviews the client's postoperative status. The client's preoperative heart rate was 76/min and blood pressure was 118/74 mm Hg. Which current finding is the most critical to report to the registered nurse?

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Cevap: Heart rate of 108/min and blood pressure of 100/62 mm Hg

Cevap

The most critical finding to report is a heart rate of 108/min and blood pressure of 100/62 mm Hg.
The correct answer identifies a trend of tachycardia (heart rate 108/min) and mild hypotension (blood pressure 100/62 mm Hg). In a postoperative client, these are classic early compensatory signs of hypovolemic shock, often caused by internal bleeding. The practical nurse must recognize this risk potential and report it immediately to the registered nurse to prevent further deterioration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's surgical timeline and baseline vital signs.
The client is 4 hours post-open appendectomy with a baseline heart rate of 76/min and blood pressure of 118/74 mm Hg.
Establishing the baseline allows the nurse to identify significant deviations that indicate postoperative complications.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against expected postoperative norms.
Pain, mild temperature elevation, and absent bowel sounds are expected 4 hours postoperatively. The elevated heart rate and decreased blood pressure are not expected.
Differentiating between benign, expected findings and signs of deterioration is a key practical nursing responsibility.
3
Identify the physiological implication of the abnormal vital signs.
Tachycardia combined with mild hypotension indicates early compensatory hypovolemic shock, likely due to postoperative hemorrhage.
Early recognition of shock allows for prompt intervention before the client becomes hemodynamically unstable.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of postoperative hypovolemic shock
Soru 1970Soru →

An older adult client is receiving daily oral warfarin for atrial fibrillation management. The electronic health record displays a morning International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 5.2. When the practical nurse enters the room, the client complains of a new, severe headache and asks for their prescribed as-needed acetaminophen. Which action is the priority for the practical nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold all medications and immediately alert the registered nurse about the client's symptoms and laboratory values.

Cevap

Withhold all medications and immediately alert the registered nurse about the client's symptoms and laboratory values.
An INR of 5.2 is dangerously elevated above the standard therapeutic range of 2.0 to 3.0 for atrial fibrillation. A new, severe headache in a client with supratherapeutic anticoagulation strongly indicates a possible intracranial hemorrhage. The priority is physiological safety; therefore, the practical nurse must withhold all medications and immediately escalate these critical findings to the registered nurse for comprehensive evaluation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the laboratory results against normal therapeutic ranges.
An INR of 5.2 is identified as critically supratherapeutic (normal therapeutic range for atrial fibrillation is 2.0 to 3.0).
High INR values indicate an extreme risk for spontaneous hemorrhage.
2
Correlate the client's new symptom with the critical laboratory value.
The new, severe headache is recognized as a hallmark sign of a potential life-threatening intracranial hemorrhage.
Identifying complications of pharmacological therapies is essential for client safety.
3
Determine the appropriate intervention based on practical nursing scope of practice.
The decision is made to withhold all medications (which could mask symptoms or worsen bleeding) and escalate the emergent finding.
Acute, life-threatening changes require immediate registered nurse or provider assessment.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing critical medication adverse effects, prioritizing physiological safety, and adhering to the practical nurse scope of practice during a potential emergency.
Soru 1971Soru →

During an outpatient support group for stress management, clients describe their recent reactions to challenging life events. Match each client's statement or behavior with the specific defense mechanism being demonstrated.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

"I didn't get the job because the interviewer clearly felt threatened by my extensive level of experience."
A client who feels deeply insecure about their lack of physical coordination spends hours each day studying to become the top academic scholar in their class.
A client who is secretly tempted to cheat on their spouse constantly accuses the spouse of being unfaithful and flirtatious.
An adult client admitted to the medical-surgical unit throws a temper tantrum and cries loudly when their preferred lunch is not available.

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The statement blaming the interviewer matches with Rationalization. Excelling academically to mask physical insecurity matches with Compensation. Accusing a spouse of one's own temptations matches with Projection. Throwing a temper tantrum matches with Regression.
Each behavior directly aligns with the classic psychiatric definition of its respective defense mechanism. Rationalization involves excuse-making, Compensation involves balancing a deficit with a strength, Projection involves casting one's own flaws onto others, and Regression involves reverting to immature behaviors.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the first scenario regarding the job interview.
The client is creating a plausible but false excuse (interviewer felt threatened) to avoid the painful reality of rejection, which defines Rationalization.
Identifying the underlying motive for the statement reveals the defense mechanism.
2
Evaluate the behavior of the client focusing on academics.
The client is making up for a perceived weakness by emphasizing a strength, which defines Compensation.
Distinguishing between substitution of goals and making up for deficits clarifies the coping strategy.
3
Examine the client accusing their spouse of infidelity.
The client is placing their own unacceptable feelings (desire to cheat) onto someone else, which is the definition of Projection.
Understanding who holds the original feeling versus who it is attributed to is key to identifying projection.
4
Assess the behavior of the adult throwing a tantrum.
The client is reverting to childish behaviors to cope with the stress of hospitalization, which defines Regression.
Recognizing behaviors that are inappropriate for the client's developmental age points to regression.

Anahtar Kavram

Defense Mechanisms in Coping with Stress
Soru 1972Soru →

A practical nurse is providing care for a client who is 72 hours post-operative following a right above-the-knee amputation. The client reports a dull, aching discomfort in the right hip and requests that the head of the bed be raised to 60 degrees with a thick pillow placed under the residual limb. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Acknowledge the discomfort, keep the bed flat, and assist the client into a prone position to stretch the hip flexor muscles.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to acknowledge the discomfort, maintain a flat bed position, and assist the client into a prone position to stretch the hip flexor muscles.
Following an above-the-knee amputation, the residual limb should not be elevated on a pillow after the first 24 hours due to the high risk of developing a hip flexion contracture. Furthermore, raising the head of the bed flexes the hip joint significantly. The prone position is the optimal nursing intervention, as it fully extends the hip joint, stretches the flexor muscles, prevents contractures, and alleviates aching caused by prolonged flexion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's postoperative timeline and positioning request.
The client is 72 hours post-operative from an above-the-knee amputation (AKA) and is requesting both limb elevation and a high-Fowler's position.
Identifying the time since surgery is critical, as positioning guidelines change significantly after the first 24 hours to prevent complications.
2
Evaluate the physiological impact of the requested positions on the residual limb and hip joint.
Both elevating the limb on a pillow and raising the head of the bed to 60 degrees will cause prolonged flexion of the hip joint.
Continuous hip flexion after an AKA leads to shortening of the flexor muscles, resulting in a permanent hip flexion contracture that impairs future prosthesis use.
3
Select the most appropriate nursing intervention within the practical nurse's scope of practice.
The nurse must gently deny the unsafe request, explain the rationale to reinforce teaching, and assist the client into a prone position.
The prone position fully extends the hip joint, counteracting the flexed positions typical of sitting or resting in bed, and safely addresses the aching discomfort caused by muscle tension.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of hip flexion contractures following an above-the-knee amputation
Soru 1973Soru →

A practical nurse is assigned to administer prophylactic erythromycin ophthalmic ointment to a neonate who was delivered vaginally 1 hour ago. Arrange the following procedural steps in the correct chronological order from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The practical nurse should first cleanse the eyes, then gently expose the lower conjunctival sac, apply the ointment from the inner to the outer canthus, allow the neonate's eyes to close to distribute the medication, and finally wait at least one minute before wiping away any excess.
Administering erythromycin ophthalmic ointment requires a strict aseptic and atraumatic sequence. Cleansing the eyes first removes existing debris. Exposing the lower conjunctival sac provides the proper mucosal surface for absorption while avoiding direct trauma to the cornea. Applying the medication from the inner to the outer canthus prevents contamination of the lacrimal duct. Allowing the neonate to blink naturally distributes the ointment across the ocular surface. Finally, waiting before wiping ensures the medication has sufficient contact time with the conjunctiva before the excess is removed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Cleanse the neonate's eyes from the inner to the outer canthus.
Debris and secretions are removed.
This prevents introducing pathogens into the eye during medication administration.
2
Retract the eyelid margins to expose the lower conjunctival sac.
The proper anatomical site for administration is accessed.
Instilling medication into the conjunctival sac prevents direct trauma to the cornea.
3
Instill the ointment ribbon from the inner to the outer canthus.
Medication is placed securely in the sac.
This specific directional application protects the nasolacrimal duct from contamination.
4
Allow the neonate to blink and close their eyes naturally.
The ointment is distributed evenly.
Natural eye closure safely spreads the medication over the entire ocular surface.
5
Wait one minute before wiping away excess ointment.
Medication absorbs properly and periorbital skin is cleaned.
Waiting ensures sufficient mucosal contact time to provide effective prophylaxis against neonatal conjunctivitis.

Anahtar Kavram

Ophthalmic Prophylaxis Administration Sequence
Soru 1974Soru →

A registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client who was recently admitted with severe sepsis. The RN is busy initiating an emergency blood transfusion for another client and asks the practical nurse (PN) to assist with the septic client's medication administration. Which pharmacological task is most appropriate for the PN to accept?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administering a scheduled oral dose of acetaminophen for an elevated temperature

Cevap

Administering a scheduled oral dose of acetaminophen for an elevated temperature
The administration of standard, scheduled oral medications is a fundamental skill well within the practical nurse scope of practice. Even when a client is acutely ill, giving a basic oral antipyretic does not require the advanced clinical judgment or immediate physiological assessment that intravenous therapies demand.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's condition and the tasks being delegated by the registered nurse.
The client has severe sepsis, but the tasks involve different routes and levels of clinical judgment.
Delegation must match the legal scope of practice for a practical nurse, regardless of how busy the unit is.
2
Evaluate each pharmacological task against the standard practical nurse (PN) scope of practice.
IV push medications, initial IV antibiotic doses, vasoactive titrations, and primary evaluations are identified as out of scope.
These tasks require advanced nursing assessment, clinical judgment, and interpretation of unstable physiological changes.
3
Identify the task that involves routine administration without the need for advanced initial assessment.
Providing a scheduled oral antipyretic is identified as a safe, within-scope task.
Oral medication administration is a core competency for practical nurses.

Anahtar Kavram

LPN/LVN Scope of Practice in Pharmacological Therapies
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 1975Soru →

An older adult client with bilateral hearing aids and a history of moderate dementia is hospitalized for pneumonia. At 0200, the client removes the hearing aids, becomes acutely agitated, and reports seeing "strangers crawling on the ceiling." The client is attempting to climb over the bed rails. Which action should the practical nurse (PN) take first?

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Cevap: Turn on a soft room light, approach the client directly in their line of sight, and state, "I am your nurse and you are safe here."

Cevap

Turn on a soft room light, approach the client directly in their line of sight, and state, "I am your nurse and you are safe here."
The correct action prioritizes the client's immediate physical safety and addresses the sensory-perceptual alteration. Turning on a soft light reduces shadows that can cause visual illusions. Because the client has removed their hearing aids, approaching directly in their line of sight is essential for communication. Stating who the nurse is and validating the client's safety provides therapeutic reorientation without arguing with the hallucination.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current sensory and perceptual state.
The client is experiencing visual hallucinations or illusions compounded by sensory deprivation (dark room, removed hearing aids) and possible acute delirium from pneumonia.
Accurate assessment of the underlying cause of the agitation is required to determine the appropriate intervention.
2
Identify the immediate priority.
The client is attempting to climb over the bed rails, presenting an acute safety risk due to fear and disorientation.
Client safety is always the highest priority in a behavioral or sensory crisis.
3
Select the intervention that addresses safety, sensory deficits, and therapeutic communication.
Improving lighting, ensuring the client can see the nurse (due to hearing loss), and providing a calming, orienting statement directly mitigates the crisis.
These actions use least restrictive measures to restore reality and ensure safety.

Anahtar Kavram

Sensory and Perceptual Alterations
Soru 1976Soru →

A practical nurse is assigned to care for a client with a history of heart failure. The client is scheduled to receive oral furosemide and oral digoxin at this time. Upon reviewing the morning laboratory report, the nurse notes a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L). The client's most recent apical pulse is 62 beats per minute. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next action for the practical nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold both the furosemide and the digoxin, and immediately notify the registered nurse.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to withhold both the furosemide and the digoxin, and immediately notify the registered nurse.
A serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L) is critically low (the normal range is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L). Furosemide is a potassium-wasting loop diuretic that would further deplete the client's potassium levels. Additionally, hypokalemia significantly increases the client's risk for life-threatening digoxin toxicity, even when the apical pulse is within the standard administration parameter of being greater than 60 beats per minute. To reduce the potential for severe cardiovascular complications, the practical nurse must withhold both medications and immediately escalate these findings to the registered nurse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the laboratory data provided in the scenario.
The client has a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L).
Normal serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. A value of 2.9 mEq/L indicates severe hypokalemia, a critical laboratory finding.
2
Evaluate the scheduled medications against the client's current physiological status.
Furosemide wastes potassium and will worsen the hypokalemia. Digoxin toxicity is strongly potentiated by low potassium levels.
Understanding the pharmacodynamics of these medications helps identify immediate risks to client safety.
3
Determine the necessary nursing intervention within the practical nurse scope of practice.
Both medications must be withheld, and the registered nurse must be notified immediately.
Escalating critical lab values that impact high-risk medications is a vital component of risk reduction and falls within the practical nurse's mandatory reporting duties.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of risk potential regarding medication administration requires correlating critical laboratory values (such as hypokalemia) with high-risk medications (such as furosemide and digoxin) and escalating findings appropriately.
Soru 1977Soru →

A practical nurse is evaluating an 82-year-old client at a community wellness center. Which observation should the nurse interpret as an expected physiological change related to the aging process?

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Cevap: Prolonged time required for the eyes to adjust when moving from a brightly lit to a dark room

Cevap

The observation of prolonged time required for the eyes to adjust when moving from a brightly lit to a dark room is an expected physiological change related to the aging process.
As part of the normal aging process, the pupil of the eye becomes smaller and the sphincter muscles of the iris become more rigid. This results in a slower pupillary response, meaning it takes a prolonged amount of time for the eyes to adjust when transitioning between bright and dark environments. This is a universally expected physiological change that primarily requires practical safety measures.

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1
Analyze the question stem to identify the primary goal.
The nurse must differentiate a normal, expected age-related physiological change from signs of acute illness or pathology.
Recognizing expected baseline changes is essential to prevent unnecessary interventions and to accurately identify true clinical deterioration.
2
Evaluate the visual change option.
Pupillary response slows with advanced age due to changes in the iris and pupil size, leading to slower accommodation to changes in lighting. This is an expected, benign finding.
This structural change requires safety education (e.g., adequate lighting, fall prevention) but no acute medical intervention.
3
Evaluate the cognitive and vital sign options for pathology.
Recent disorientation indicates acute delirium. Tachypnea with accessory muscle use indicates respiratory distress. Tachycardia with dizziness indicates potential shock or cardiovascular instability.
These findings are all abnormal at any age and require prompt escalation and medical treatment.

Anahtar Kavram

Differentiating normal physiological changes of aging from signs of acute pathology
Soru 1978Soru →

While conducting a routine check on a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vacuum-assisted vaginal birth of a 9-pound (4.08 kg) neonate, the practical nurse notes a firm, midline uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus. The client has scant lochia rubra but reports severe, unrelenting vaginal pressure. The client's resting heart rate is 112 beats per minute. Which action should the practical nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Immediately alert the supervising registered nurse about the findings

Cevap

Immediately alert the supervising registered nurse about the findings
The client's presentation of severe, unrelenting vaginal pressure, tachycardia, a firm fundus, and scant lochia is highly suspicious for a developing hematoma, a form of concealed postpartum hemorrhage. Because this represents a potential obstetric emergency that requires advanced assessment and potential surgical intervention, the practical nurse must immediately notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider. Timely escalation is critical to prevent severe hypovolemic shock.

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1
Analyze the client's history and presenting data
The client had a vacuum-assisted birth of a large neonate and now presents with severe perineal pressure, tachycardia, a firm fundus, and scant lochia.
Identifying risk factors (instrument-assisted birth, macrosomia) and current symptoms helps differentiate between normal postpartum changes and complications.
2
Interpret the clinical significance of the findings
The combination of severe, unrelenting pressure, tachycardia, and a firm fundus with scant bleeding strongly suggests a developing hematoma (concealed hemorrhage), rather than uterine atony.
A firm fundus indicates the uterus is contracted, but tachycardia and severe pressure indicate ongoing hidden blood loss and tissue expansion.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention based on scope of practice
The practical nurse must immediately notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider.
A hematoma is an obstetric emergency that requires advanced assessment and potential surgical intervention, which is beyond the practical nurse's scope to manage independently.

Anahtar Kavram

Postpartum Complications and Scope of Practice
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1979Soru →

A practical nurse is reviewing health questionnaires at a family practice clinic. The parents of an 18-month-old child describe their child's current abilities at home. Which reported activities indicate that the child is demonstrating expected developmental milestones for this age? (Select all that apply)

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Cevap: Throws a small ball overhand without losing balance.; Turns the pages of a cardboard book, multiple pages at a time.; Uses a spoon to feed themselves, although frequent spilling occurs.

Cevap

The expected milestones for an 18-month-old include throwing a ball overhand, turning multiple pages of a book at once, and using a spoon to self-feed with some spilling.
Expected 18-month milestones involve refined gross and fine motor skills such as throwing a ball overhand, turning multiple pages of a sturdy book at once, and using a spoon with some spilling. Language development at this stage typically consists of single words, not full sentences.

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1
Identify the client's developmental age.
The child is exactly 18 months old.
Milestones are highly specific to chronological age and form the basis for developmental assessment.
2
Analyze each reported activity against expected 18-month milestones.
Throwing a ball overhand, turning multiple pages, and using a spoon align with 18-month expectations.
Differentiating between current expected skills and skills that develop later prevents misidentifying normal development as delayed.
3
Identify and exclude milestones that belong to older children.
Jumping with both feet (30 months) and speaking in 4-5 word sentences (4 years) are excluded.
Selecting advanced milestones would indicate milestone confusion and an inaccurate understanding of normal progression.

Anahtar Kavram

Normal developmental milestones for an 18-month-old toddler include specific gross motor, fine motor, and early adaptive skills.
Soru 1980Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) at a community health clinic is speaking with a 24-year-old client whose best friend died suddenly in a motor vehicle crash three days ago. The client is pacing, visibly agitated, and states, "This cannot be happening. I just talked to them on Tuesday!" Which of the following statements by the PN are appropriate? Select all that apply.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: This is an incredibly difficult situation. I am here for you.; It sounds like you are feeling a deep sense of shock right now.; Take your time. You can share whatever you are feeling when you are ready.

Cevap

The therapeutic responses involve offering self, validating the client's feelings of shock, and allowing the client to share at their own pace.
The correct statements utilize foundational therapeutic communication techniques: offering self, reflecting/validating emotions, and providing broad openings. During the acute phase of sudden grief, clients often experience intense shock and agitation. The nurse's role is to provide a safe, non-judgmental environment that allows the client to process their reality without feeling pressured or invalidated.

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1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is experiencing acute grief, specifically shock and denial, following a sudden, traumatic loss three days ago.
Understanding the timeline and nature of the loss helps determine the most appropriate therapeutic communication strategies.
2
Evaluate each nursing response against therapeutic communication principles.
Responses that offer self, reflect feelings, and provide broad openings are therapeutic. Responses that give advice, ask "why", or enforce rigid stages of grief are non-therapeutic.
The LPN/LVN must use communication techniques that facilitate expression of grief rather than blocking it.
3
Select the statements that apply therapeutic techniques.
The statements validating the shock, offering presence, and giving the client time are correct.
These actions directly support the client's psychosocial integrity during an acute crisis.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication in Acute Grief
ÖncekiSayfa 99 / 147Sonraki
Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-PN | Examkin