Physiological Integrity

1313 soru

Soru 781Soru →

A practical nurse is providing care for a client who is recovering on the medical-surgical unit two days after abdominal surgery. As part of minimizing risk potential, the nurse monitors clinical data and ongoing care activities. Which of the following findings or observations require immediate escalation or corrective intervention? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: A resting heart rate of 118118 beats per minute accompanied by new-onset restlessness; A morning laboratory report showing a serum white blood cell (WBC) count of 17,500/mm317,500/mm^3

Cevap

The findings that require immediate escalation are the resting heart rate of 118 beats per minute with restlessness, and the elevated white blood cell count of 17,500/mm��.
A heart rate of 118 beats per minute combined with new-onset restlessness is a classic early indicator of hypovolemic shock or internal bleeding. Furthermore, a white blood cell count of 17,500/mm³ strongly suggests a postoperative infection. Both of these findings represent significant, acute risks to the client and require immediate escalation to the registered nurse or healthcare provider.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs and clinical presentation for early signs of postoperative complications.
A heart rate of 118 beats per minute combined with restlessness is abnormal and may indicate early hypovolemia or hemorrhage.
Tachycardia and mental status changes are critical early warning signs that require the registered nurse's immediate assessment before blood pressure drops.
2
Evaluate the laboratory values against normal reference ranges.
The WBC count of 17,500/mm³ is significantly elevated above the normal range of 5,000 to 10,000/mm³.
Leukocytosis indicates a potential postoperative infection requiring prompt medical intervention.
3
Review the remaining clinical observations for appropriateness.
The potassium level, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and medication administration process are all within normal, safe limits.
Identifying expected, safe outcomes ensures that interventions are only directed toward true risks, preventing unnecessary escalation.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing early clinical indicators of postoperative complications, including shock and infection, to ensure prompt escalation and reduce client risk.
Soru 782Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who had a percutaneous liver biopsy 4 hours ago. The client's baseline vital signs were heart rate 76 beats/minute and blood pressure 134/82 mm Hg. The client now reports a new onset of dull right shoulder pain. Current vital signs are heart rate 112 beats/minute, respirations 22 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 102/68 mm Hg. The puncture site dressing is dry and intact. Which action should the PN take first?

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Cevap: Notify the registered nurse immediately regarding the changes in the client's condition.

Cevap

Notify the registered nurse immediately regarding the changes in the client's condition.
Right shoulder pain following a percutaneous liver biopsy is a classic indicator of referred pain caused by blood irritating the diaphragm (Kehr's sign). When this symptom is combined with an increasing heart rate and decreasing blood pressure, it strongly signals early hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock due to internal bleeding. Because the bleeding is internal—as indicated by the dry and intact abdominal dressing—the practical nurse must prioritize immediately notifying the registered nurse or healthcare provider to initiate rapid emergency interventions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's reported symptom of new right shoulder pain.
Identify this as Kehr's sign, which is referred pain indicating diaphragmatic irritation, a common sign of internal hemorrhage after a liver biopsy.
Recognizing anatomical pain referral patterns is critical for identifying non-visible post-procedural complications.
2
Compare current vital signs to baseline.
Note the heart rate increased from 76 to 112 beats/minute, and blood pressure dropped from 134/82 to 102/68 mm Hg.
Tachycardia and narrowing pulse pressure or mild hypotension are compensatory mechanisms indicating early hypovolemic shock.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention within the PN scope of practice.
Conclude that the client is experiencing a life-threatening internal hemorrhage requiring immediate escalation.
The PN must recognize impending shock and immediately notify the RN to facilitate rapid medical intervention, rather than independently treating symptoms or removing dressings.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition of internal hemorrhage and early shock following an invasive procedure.
Soru 783Soru →

A practical nurse in an outpatient orthopedic clinic is reinforcing discharge teaching for a client with a postoperative non-weight-bearing right leg cast. The client needs to learn how to safely ascend stairs at home using standard axillary crutches. Place the following steps in the correct chronological order to ensure safe mobility.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Assume a tripod stance, support weight on crutches while advancing the unaffected leg, shift weight to the unaffected leg, lift the crutches and affected leg together, and verify balance.
The proper sequence for ascending stairs with crutches and a non-weight-bearing leg follows the fundamental principle of 'up with the good.' The client must first establish a stable tripod base. Next, body weight is supported entirely by the arms on the crutches while the unaffected, strong leg is advanced up onto the step. Once the strong leg is firmly planted, the client shifts their weight onto it, which provides the necessary power to lift the body. Finally, the crutches and the affected leg are brought up simultaneously to the new step, and balance is verified before repeating the process.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assume a stable tripod stance facing the stairs with crutches positioned securely on the floor.
A wide, secure base of support is established.
The tripod position is the foundational stance for crutch walking, ensuring stability before initiating movement.
2
Support body weight entirely on the crutch handgrips and advance the unaffected left leg onto the step.
The strong, unaffected leg is securely placed on the higher surface.
When ascending, the strong leg must lead ('up with the good') because it is capable of bearing the full body weight and lifting the client against gravity.
3
Transfer body weight from the crutch handgrips onto the unaffected left leg.
The arms and crutches are relieved of the body's weight.
Weight must be fully supported by the planted strong leg to allow the client to safely lift the crutches off the ground.
4
Lift both crutches and the affected right leg simultaneously up to the step.
The crutches and the injured leg rejoin the strong leg on the new step level.
The crutches always move concurrently with the affected leg to provide continuous physical support and prevent accidental weight-bearing on the injury.
5
Re-establish a stable tripod base on the new step and verify balance before continuing.
The client is fully stable and ready to attempt the next stair.
Safety protocols dictate verifying equilibrium after every dynamic movement sequence to prevent backward falls.

Anahtar Kavram

Crutch Walking on Stairs (Non-Weight-Bearing)
Soru 784Soru →

During a morning shift, a nurse reviews the medication administration record for a toddler diagnosed with an ear infection. The provider has ordered amoxicillin 250250 mg by mouth. The liquid suspension available from the pharmacy is labeled 125125 mg per 55 mL. Which of the following amounts should the nurse administer for a single dose?

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Cevap: 1010 mL

Cevap

The nurse should administer 1010 mL for a single dose.
Using the standard formula (DesiredHave)×Volume(\frac{\text{Desired}}{\text{Have}}) \times \text{Volume}, the calculation is (250 mg125 mg)×5 mL(\frac{250 \text{ mg}}{125 \text{ mg}}) \times 5 \text{ mL}. This simplifies to 2×5 mL2 \times 5 \text{ mL}, which equals exactly 10 mL10 \text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the desired dose ordered by the provider.
250250 mg
This establishes the target amount of medication the client must receive.
2
Identify the concentration of the medication on hand.
125125 mg in every 55 mL
This establishes the relationship between the drug weight and the liquid volume.
3
Set up the dosage calculation formula: (DesiredHave)×Volume(\frac{\text{Desired}}{\text{Have}}) \times \text{Volume}.
(250125)×5(\frac{250}{125}) \times 5
This standard formula converts the prescribed weight into the correct physical volume to administer.
4
Perform the mathematical operation to determine the final volume.
2×5=102 \times 5 = 10 mL
This calculation ensures the client receives exactly the 250250 mg ordered.

Anahtar Kavram

Dosage Calculation
Soru 785Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) enters the room of a 65-year-old client receiving intravenous fluids and observes that the central venous catheter (CVC) tubing has accidentally disconnected from the injection cap. The client is suddenly grasping their chest, reporting severe shortness of breath, and exhibiting cyanosis. To reduce the risk of a life-threatening complication, in what order should the PN perform the following interventions? (Arrange from first to last)

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first clamp the catheter, position the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, initiate oxygen therapy, activate the rapid response team, and finally obtain a full set of vital signs.
In the event of a CVC disconnection and suspected air embolism, the nurse's absolute first priority is to stop further air entry by clamping the line. The second critical step is anatomically trapping the existing air in the right ventricle by placing the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, which prevents a fatal pulmonary embolism. Only after these immediate, life-saving mechanical interventions are secured should the nurse administer oxygen to treat hypoxia, activate the rapid response team, and collect vital signs.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the exposed central venous catheter.
Air is prevented from continuing to enter the central venous system.
Stopping the source of the air embolus is the most critical and immediate mechanical action required to prevent further hemodynamic collapse.
2
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Air is trapped in the apex of the right ventricle.
This specific gravitational positioning prevents the air embolus from migrating into the pulmonary artery, which would cause a fatal right ventricular outflow obstruction.
3
Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
Systemic oxygenation is increased and the nitrogen bubble size is reduced.
High-concentration oxygen treats the immediate hypoxia caused by the embolus and creates a diffusion gradient that helps absorb the air bubble.
4
Activate the rapid response team and notify the registered nurse.
Advanced medical and collaborative support is mobilized.
Once immediate life-saving physical interventions are established, escalating care is necessary for advanced hemodynamic monitoring and support.
5
Obtain a complete set of vital signs including oxygen saturation.
Baseline hemodynamic data is collected for the rapid response team.
Vital signs provide crucial data to guide ongoing resuscitation, but data collection must always follow life-saving mechanical interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

The emergency management of a suspected air embolism requires prioritizing immediate mechanical source control and anatomic isolation before physiological support and care escalation.
Soru 786Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of amoxicillin/clavulanate to a pediatric client diagnosed with acute otitis media. The client's current weight is 41.8 lbs41.8\text{ lbs}.

The primary health care provider's prescription reads: "Amoxicillin/clavulanate 45 mg/kg/day45\text{ mg/kg/day} PO divided in equal doses every 12 hours."

The pharmacy dispenses a bottle of amoxicillin/clavulanate powder for oral suspension. The reconstitution instructions on the label state: "Add 67 mL67\text{ mL} of purified water to the bottle in two parts to yield 100 mL100\text{ mL} of suspension. Each 5 mL5\text{ mL} of the reconstituted suspension contains 250 mg250\text{ mg} of amoxicillin."

How many mL should the PN administer for the morning dose? (Record your answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in your answer.)

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Cevap: 8.6

Cevap

8.6
To safely administer a weight-based pediatric medication, the practical nurse must systematically convert the weight to kilograms, determine the daily dose, divide by the frequency to find the single dose, calculate the volume based on the correct final concentration, and round appropriately. The total daily dose is 855 mg855\text{ mg}, meaning each of the two doses is 427.5 mg427.5\text{ mg}. Using the concentration of 250 mg250\text{ mg} in 5 mL5\text{ mL}, the exact calculated volume is 8.55 mL8.55\text{ mL}, which rounds to 8.6 mL8.6\text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lbs) to kilograms (kg).
41.8 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=19 kg41.8\text{ lbs} \div 2.2\text{ lbs/kg} = 19\text{ kg}
The medication dosage is prescribed based on the client's weight in kilograms.
2
Calculate the total daily dose in milligrams (mg).
19 kg×45 mg/kg/day=855 mg/day19\text{ kg} \times 45\text{ mg/kg/day} = 855\text{ mg/day}
This establishes the total amount of medication the client needs to receive over a 24-hour period.
3
Determine the amount required for a single dose.
855 mg/day÷2 doses=427.5 mg/dose855\text{ mg/day} \div 2\text{ doses} = 427.5\text{ mg/dose}
The prescription states the medication is divided into equal doses every 12 hours, which means 2 doses per day.
4
Calculate the volume of the reconstituted suspension needed for one dose.
Using dimensional analysis: 427.5 mg×5 mL250 mg=8.55 mL427.5\text{ mg} \times \frac{5\text{ mL}}{250\text{ mg}} = 8.55\text{ mL}
The label indicates the final concentration is 250 mg250\text{ mg} per 5 mL5\text{ mL}. The diluent volume (67 mL67\text{ mL}) and total bottle volume (100 mL100\text{ mL}) are distractors and not used in this step.
5
Round the final volume to the nearest tenth as instructed.
8.55 mL8.55\text{ mL} rounds to 8.6 mL8.6\text{ mL}.
Standard medical rounding rules dictate that when the hundredths digit is 5 or greater, the tenths digit is rounded up.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based pediatric dosage calculation with reconstitution
Tahmini Süre:3m 0s
Soru 787Soru →

A client is receiving care on an inpatient urology unit 2424 hours after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) with continuous bladder irrigation. The practical nurse (PN) evaluates the client's status during the current shift. Which of the following findings are correct indicators of complications that require immediate escalation to the registered nurse? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: A serum sodium laboratory result of 124 mEq/L124 \text{ mEq/L}; A resting heart rate of 118118 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 92/54 mm Hg92/54 \text{ mm Hg}; A sudden change in the urinary drainage color to thick, bright red with large clots

Cevap

The clinical indicators requiring immediate escalation are the critically low serum sodium level, the borderline shock vital signs (tachycardia and hypotension), and the sudden presence of bright red drainage with large clots.
Following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), recognizing severe complications is critical to reducing client risk. A serum sodium level of 124 mEq/L124 \text{ mEq/L} is dangerously low and indicates TURP syndrome, a complication caused by intravascular absorption of irrigation fluid. A resting heart rate of 118118 beats per minute combined with a blood pressure of 92/54 mm Hg92/54 \text{ mm Hg} points directly to early hypovolemic shock. Additionally, thick, bright red urinary drainage with large clots signifies active arterial bleeding, which is a medical emergency. All three of these findings require immediate escalation to the registered nurse for urgent intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the surgical procedure to identify high-risk complications.
A TURP procedure carries a high risk for hemorrhage and TURP syndrome (dilutional hyponatremia due to irrigation fluid absorption).
Identifying procedure-specific risks guides targeted data collection and sets the threshold for clinical escalation.
2
Evaluate the laboratory results against expected physiological parameters.
The sodium level of 124 mEq/L124 \text{ mEq/L} is critically low, while the hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL13.8 \text{ g/dL} is normal.
Severe hyponatremia is the hallmark of TURP syndrome, which can rapidly lead to cerebral edema, seizures, and death if not urgently treated.
3
Assess the vital signs and drainage characteristics for signs of instability.
The combination of tachycardia (118118 beats per minute) and hypotension (92/54 mm Hg92/54 \text{ mm Hg}), along with bright red arterial bleeding, indicates impending hemorrhagic shock.
Prompt escalation to the RN is required to stabilize the client's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) before cardiopulmonary collapse occurs.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of risk potential following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) requires identifying early indicators of life-threatening complications, specifically hemorrhagic shock and TURP syndrome.
Soru 788Soru →

A practical nurse (PN) enters the room of a client who is 5 days postoperative following an exploratory laparotomy. The client is coughing forcefully and reports feeling that "my stomach just tore open." The PN observes a loop of intestine protruding through the surgical incision. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological priority order.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stay with the client and call for assistance, then position the client to reduce abdominal tension, cover the eviscerated organs with a moist sterile dressing, assess vital signs to monitor for shock, and finally ensure NPO status for emergency surgery.
In the event of an evisceration, the primary goals are to prevent further protrusion, protect the exposed organs, and prepare for emergency surgery. The nurse must first call for help while staying with the client. Second, positioning the client with knees flexed reduces intra-abdominal pressure. Third, covering the organs with saline-soaked sterile dressings prevents tissue necrosis. Fourth, monitoring vital signs assesses for shock resulting from fluid loss. Finally, maintaining NPO status prepares the client for immediate surgical repair.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stay with the client and call for immediate assistance.
Help is summoned without abandoning the client.
Evisceration is a medical emergency requiring additional personnel to notify the surgical team.
2
Position the client in a low Fowler's position with the knees flexed.
Tension on the abdominal incision is rapidly reduced.
This minimizes the physical risk of further organ protrusion before supplies arrive.
3
Cover the protruding intestine with sterile dressings moistened with 0.9% sodium chloride.
The exposed bowel is protected from the environment.
This prevents tissue drying, necrosis, and limits infection risk.
4
Assess the client's vital signs to monitor for indications of hypovolemic shock.
A physiological baseline is established.
Fluid loss and trauma from evisceration can quickly lead to shock.
5
Ensure the client remains strictly nothing by mouth (NPO) in preparation for emergency surgery.
The client is prepared for immediate surgical intervention.
General anesthesia will be required to repair the evisceration, necessitating NPO status.

Anahtar Kavram

Wound Evisceration Management
Soru 789Soru →

A practical nurse is preparing to transfer a client who had a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) two days ago from the bed to a chair. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: position the chair on the unaffected side, lock the wheels on the bed and chair, assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed with the operative leg extended, apply the transfer belt, and finally pivot the client into the chair using their unaffected leg.
Transferring a client after a posterior total hip arthroplasty requires strict adherence to safety and positioning precautions. The environment must be prepared first by placing the chair on the client's strong side and locking all wheels. Once the environment is secure, the client is brought to a sitting position while maintaining the operative leg in extension to prevent hip flexion greater than 90 degrees. The transfer belt is then applied while the client is seated to ensure a snug fit. Finally, the client pivots on the strong, unaffected leg to move into the chair, protecting the surgical joint from dislocation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position a sturdy chair on the client's unaffected side.
The chair is placed correctly for a safe transfer.
Placing the chair on the strong side allows the client to use their unaffected leg to bear weight and pivot.
2
Ensure the wheels on both the bed and the chair are securely locked.
The bed and chair are stabilized.
Locking the wheels prevents unexpected movement that could lead to a fall or joint dislocation.
3
Assist the client to a sitting position on the edge of the bed while keeping the operative leg extended.
The client is seated safely without compromising the hip prosthesis.
Extending the operative leg prevents hip flexion beyond 90 degrees, which is a primary cause of posterior dislocation.
4
Apply a transfer belt securely around the client's waist.
The nurse establishes a safe, firm hold on the client.
The transfer belt provides stability and a secure grip point for the nurse during the physical movement.
5
Instruct the client to bear weight on the unaffected leg and pivot into the chair.
The client is successfully transferred into the chair.
Pivoting on the unaffected leg protects the surgical site from weight-bearing stress and rotational forces.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe postoperative mobility and positioning following total hip arthroplasty
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 790Soru →

A practical nurse is assisting a client with morning hygiene and lower body dressing on the second postoperative day following a right total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach. Which action by the nurse demonstrates the correct application of basic care and positioning principles?

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Cevap: Using a long-handled dressing stick and sock aid to help the client put on pants and footwear while ensuring the client's hips remain slightly higher than the knees.

Cevap

The correct action is utilizing assistive devices like a long-handled stick and sock aid while keeping the hips slightly higher than the knees, which prevents dangerous hip flexion.
For a client recovering from a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, it is critical to prevent hip flexion greater than 90 degrees. Using long-handled assistive devices allows the client to dress the lower body without bending at the waist. Keeping the hips slightly higher than the knees (such as by using a raised toilet seat or wedge cushion) further ensures the hip angle remains safely obtuse, preventing posterior dislocation of the prosthesis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical approach and associated anatomical risks.
The client had a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach.
The surgical approach determines the specific movement precautions needed to prevent joint dislocation.
2
Recall the specific posterior hip precautions.
The client must avoid hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, avoid adduction of the leg across the midline, and avoid internal rotation of the leg.
These specific anatomical movements force the prosthetic femoral head out of the acetabulum posteriorly.
3
Evaluate the nursing actions against these strict precautions.
Only the use of assistive devices with the hips positioned above the knees adheres to all postoperative restrictions.
This prevents the client from bending forward at the waist (flexing the hip > 90 degrees) during the daily activity of dressing.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Positioning and Activities of Daily Living (ADLs) for Total Hip Arthroplasty
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 791Soru →

An 82-year-old client is hospitalized with a severe urinary tract infection and has been receiving intravenous (IV) hydration and scheduled oral diphenhydramine for a localized rash over the past 48 hours. During morning rounds, the practical nurse (PN) finds the client newly agitated, disoriented to place, and actively pulling at the IV catheter. The next scheduled dose of diphenhydramine is currently due. Which action should the PN take first?

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Cevap: Withhold the scheduled diphenhydramine, remain with the client to maintain safety, and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN).

Cevap

The practical nurse should withhold the scheduled diphenhydramine, stay with the client to prevent harm, and promptly inform the registered nurse of the acute status change.
The correct answer identifies that the older adult client is experiencing acute delirium, a medical emergency often triggered or exacerbated by anticholinergic medications like diphenhydramine. The practical nurse must prioritize safety by remaining with the client, withholding the potentially harmful medication to prevent further deterioration, and immediately notifying the registered nurse to facilitate a prompt, comprehensive clinical evaluation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's acute change in clinical presentation.
The client displays sudden onset agitation and disorientation, indicating acute delirium.
Identifying acute changes in mental status is critical in the older adult population, as they are highly susceptible to delirium from infections and medications.
2
Evaluate the pharmacological risk of the scheduled medication.
The practical nurse identifies that diphenhydramine has strong anticholinergic properties.
Anticholinergic medications frequently precipitate or worsen delirium in elderly clients, necessitating the withholding of the upcoming dose.
3
Determine the priority intervention based on the practical nurse scope of practice.
The nurse must stay with the client and report the findings to the supervising registered nurse.
The practical nurse is responsible for maintaining immediate client safety and reporting acute, unstable conditions to the registered nurse for further comprehensive assessment.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing adverse anticholinergic drug effects in older adults and adhering to the practical nurse scope of practice during an acute clinical change.
Soru 792Soru →

An older adult client is recovering from an ischemic stroke and has right-sided weakness. Following a bedside swallow evaluation, the client is permitted to consume a pureed diet. Which of the following basic care measures should the practical nurse implement during and after mealtime to promote comfort and safety? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Maintain the client in a fully upright, seated alignment for at least 30 minutes following the meal.; Instruct the client to tilt their chin slightly downward toward the chest while in the process of swallowing.; Place small amounts of pureed food securely on the unaffected, left side of the client's mouth.

Cevap

The nurse should maintain the client in an upright position for 30 minutes after eating, instruct them to use a chin-tuck maneuver, and place food on the unaffected side of the mouth.
Safe feeding for a client with stroke-related dysphagia focuses heavily on airway protection. Maintaining an upright position uses gravity to keep food moving downward. Tucking the chin closes off the trachea to prevent food entry. Placing food on the unaffected side maximizes the client's muscular control over the bolus, ensuring it is swallowed safely rather than pocketed or aspirated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's condition and risk factors.
The client has right-sided weakness and a recent swallow evaluation, indicating a high risk for dysphagia and aspiration.
Identifying the specific neurological deficits determines which basic care interventions are necessary for safe feeding.
2
Evaluate each care measure for aspiration prevention.
Upright positioning, chin-tucking, and feeding on the unaffected side directly protect the airway and facilitate safe swallowing.
These physical techniques compensate for muscular deficits during mealtime.
3
Evaluate the remaining options against safety protocols and scope of practice.
Laying the client flat increases aspiration risk, delegating the first meal is unsafe, and ignoring dietary restrictions violates holistic care principles.
Nursing actions must align with safety standards, legal delegation boundaries, and cultural competence.

Anahtar Kavram

Aspiration Precautions and Safe Feeding Techniques
Soru 793Soru →

An 80-year-old client with a history of heart failure is prescribed a daily oral dose of digoxin. The morning laboratory results indicate a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L (3.1 mmol/L). Upon assessment, the practical nurse (PN) notes the client is experiencing new-onset acute confusion and nausea. Which action should the PN take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the medication and immediately report the clinical findings to the registered nurse (RN).

Cevap

The correct action is to withhold the medication and immediately report the clinical findings to the registered nurse (RN).
The correct action prioritizes client safety by recognizing the high risk for digoxin toxicity. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the myocardium's sensitivity to digoxin. Combined with the clinical signs of nausea and new-onset confusion, the practical nurse (PN) must safely withhold the drug and escalate the findings to the registered nurse (RN) for further medical evaluation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's laboratory values.
The serum potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L, which indicates hypokalemia (normal is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L).
Hypokalemia significantly increases the myocardium's sensitivity to digoxin, raising the risk for toxicity.
2
Evaluate the client's clinical presentation in the context of the laboratory results.
The client has new-onset acute confusion and nausea.
Gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea) and neurologic changes (confusion) are classic signs of digoxin toxicity, especially in older adults.
3
Determine the appropriate practical nurse (PN) action based on scope of practice and safety protocols.
The PN must recognize the high risk for toxicity, safely withhold the scheduled digoxin dose, and notify the supervising RN.
Administering the medication could cause severe harm. Modifying the treatment plan or providing advanced assessment requires RN or provider intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Digoxin toxicity recognition, electrolyte imbalances, and the practical nurse's role in withholding medication and escalating critical findings.
Soru 794Soru →

A practical nurse is caring for a client who recently returned to the unit following a subtotal thyroidectomy. To promote comfort, minimize neck swelling, and support the airway, which of the following positions should the nurse assist the client into?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Semi-Fowler's position with pillows supporting the head and neck

Cevap

The correct position is Semi-Fowler's position with pillows supporting the head and neck.
Elevating the head of the bed to a Semi-Fowler's position (30 to 45 degrees) and carefully supporting the head and neck with pillows promotes venous return. This directly decreases postoperative swelling in the neck area and prevents dangerous tension on the incision line, ensuring a patent airway and maximizing client comfort.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's surgical procedure and related risks.
The client had a thyroidectomy (neck surgery), which carries a high risk of airway compromise due to postoperative tissue swelling and bleeding.
Understanding the procedure dictates the specific comfort and safety interventions required.
2
Evaluate the physiological effects of different body positions on the head and neck.
Elevating the head of the bed uses gravity to promote venous drainage away from the surgical site, while keeping the bed flat increases pressure and fluid accumulation.
Decreasing fluid accumulation in the neck prevents airway compression and promotes overall comfort.
3
Select the position that optimally meets the client's postoperative needs.
Semi-Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 30-45 degrees) with neck support is chosen.
This specific position achieves optimal venous return, minimizes tension on the sensitive suture line, and keeps the airway clear.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Positioning for Neck Surgery
Soru 795Soru →

A 68-year-old client is recovering on the orthopedic unit 24 hours after a right total hip arthroplasty. The assigned practical nurse enters the room and notes the client is highly restless, reporting severe incisional pain rated as 8 on a 0-to-10 scale. Assessment reveals the following vital signs: blood pressure 88/54 mm Hg, heart rate 118 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 22 breaths/minute. The morning laboratory profile shows a hemoglobin level of 7.8 g/dL, which is a significant decrease from the preoperative baseline of 12.1 g/dL.

The client's current medication administration record includes the following PRN orders for pain management:
* Hydromorphone 0.5 mg intravenous (IV) push every 3 hours
* Ketorolac 15 mg intramuscularly (IM) every 6 hours
* Tramadol 50 mg orally every 4 hours

Based on the clinical assessment and the practical nursing scope of practice, which action is the priority?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold all analgesic medications, place the client in a supine position, and immediately escalate the assessment findings to the registered nurse.

Cevap

Withhold all analgesic medications, place the client in a supine position, and immediately escalate the assessment findings to the registered nurse.
The client's restlessness, tachycardia, profound hypotension, and precipitous drop in hemoglobin are definitive indicators of acute postoperative hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock. Administering opioids (such as hydromorphone or tramadol) would induce peripheral vasodilation and dangerously exacerbate the hypotension. Administering an NSAID (such as ketorolac) is strictly contraindicated due to its antiplatelet properties, which would worsen the active internal bleeding. Furthermore, the client is hemodynamically unstable, which requires immediate registered nurse (RN) and provider intervention. The safest and most appropriate pharmacological action within the practical nurse scope is to withhold the medications that could cause further harm, position the client to maximize venous return to the heart, and immediately report the critical findings.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
The client is exhibiting tachycardia (118 bpm), hypotension (88/54 mm Hg), and restlessness.
These are classic compensatory signs of hypovolemic shock or active bleeding, especially in the postoperative period.
2
Evaluate the morning laboratory results against the baseline.
Hemoglobin has dropped from 12.1 g/dL to 7.8 g/dL.
A sudden and significant drop in hemoglobin confirms acute blood loss, solidifying the suspicion of hemorrhagic shock.
3
Evaluate the safety and contraindications of the ordered PRN medications.
Hydromorphone and tramadol (opioids) will worsen hypotension. Ketorolac (NSAID) will inhibit platelet aggregation and worsen bleeding.
Understanding the systemic side effects of pharmacological therapies prevents the administration of drugs that could cause cardiovascular collapse or uncontrolled hemorrhage.
4
Apply the practical nurse scope of practice to determine the final action.
Withhold all analgesics, position the client to promote venous return (supine/modified Trendelenburg), and escalate to the RN.
The client is hemodynamically unstable. IV push medications are typically out of scope, and any medication administration is unsafe. Immediate RN and provider intervention is required.

Anahtar Kavram

Pharmacological contraindications in hypovolemic shock and LPN/LVN scope of practice
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 796Soru →

A practical nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of potassium chloride oral solution to a client who is receiving diuretic therapy. The provider has prescribed 30 mEq30\text{ mEq} of potassium chloride by mouth daily. The pharmacy provides the medication in a bulk bottle labeled 20 mEq/15 mL20\text{ mEq}/15\text{ mL}.

How many mL\text{mL} should the nurse administer per dose? (Record the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in the answer.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 22.5

Cevap

22.5
To determine the correct volume to administer, the practical nurse uses the standard medication calculation formula: (Desired Dose/Available Dose)×Volume(\text{Desired Dose} / \text{Available Dose}) \times \text{Volume}. The desired dose prescribed is 30 mEq30\text{ mEq}, the available dose is 20 mEq20\text{ mEq}, and the volume those 20 mEq20\text{ mEq} are dissolved in is 15 mL15\text{ mL}. Dividing 3030 by 2020 equals 1.51.5. Multiplying 1.51.5 by the volume of 15 mL15\text{ mL} yields a final administrable volume of 22.5 mL22.5\text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the prescribed desired dose and the available medication concentration.
Desired dose: 30 mEq30\text{ mEq}. Available: 20 mEq20\text{ mEq} per 15 mL15\text{ mL}.
Extracting the correct values from the prescription and medication label is the first necessary step for accurate dosage calculation.
2
Set up the calculation using the formula: (Desired/Have)×Volume=X(\text{Desired} / \text{Have}) \times \text{Volume} = X.
(30 mEq/20 mEq)×15 mL=X(30\text{ mEq} / 20\text{ mEq}) \times 15\text{ mL} = X
This formula ensures the unit of milliequivalents (mEq) cancels out, leaving the final answer in the requested unit of milliliters (mL).
3
Perform the mathematical operation to solve for X.
1.5×15 mL=22.5 mL1.5 \times 15\text{ mL} = 22.5\text{ mL}.
Solving the equation provides the exact volume the nurse needs to pour for the client.

Anahtar Kavram

Liquid Medication Dosage Calculation
Soru 797Soru →

A client is receiving care on a medical unit for fluid volume deficit caused by severe gastroenteritis. During afternoon rounds, the practical nurse notes that the client has voided a total of 55 mL55\text{ mL} of concentrated urine over the past three hours. The client's current heart rate is 104104 beats per minute and blood pressure is 102/68 mm Hg102/68\text{ mm Hg}, compared to a baseline of 122/78 mm Hg122/78\text{ mm Hg}. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Alert the assigned registered nurse to the current clinical findings.

Cevap

The priority action is to immediately notify the registered nurse of the client's borderline vital signs and decreased urine output.
The correct answer emphasizes the practical nurse's responsibility to recognize early signs of a deteriorating condition and escalate them without delay. A urine output of less than 30 mL30\text{ mL} per hour combined with mild tachycardia and a dropping blood pressure are early indicators of hypovolemic shock. The registered nurse must be alerted to perform a comprehensive assessment and coordinate with the healthcare provider for potential intravenous fluid resuscitation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the urine output data.
The client produced 55 mL over 3 hours, which averages to about 18 mL per hour.
Normal minimum urine output is 30 mL per hour; an output of 18 mL per hour indicates oliguria, a sign of poor renal perfusion.
2
Evaluate the vital sign trends.
The heart rate is elevated at 104 beats per minute and blood pressure has decreased significantly from the baseline.
Tachycardia and hypotension are early compensatory mechanisms for decreased circulating blood volume.
3
Determine the required nursing action.
The practical nurse must escalate these findings to the registered nurse immediately.
It is within the practical nurse's scope of practice to recognize life-threatening trends, such as hypovolemic shock, and promptly initiate the escalation process for further medical intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition and Escalation of Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 798Soru →

During hourly rounds, a practical nurse evaluates a client who underwent a percutaneous coronary intervention via the right femoral approach 3 hours ago. The client's current vital signs are blood pressure 108/62 mm Hg, heart rate 112 beats/min, and respirations 20 breaths/min. Baseline vital signs obtained immediately post-procedure were blood pressure 135/78 mm Hg, heart rate 78 beats/min, and respirations 16 breaths/min. The client reports a new onset of dull, aching back pain. The right groin dressing appears dry and intact. Which action should the nurse take next?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Notify the supervising registered nurse immediately regarding the vital sign trends and reported pain

Cevap

The nurse should immediately notify the supervising registered nurse about the vital sign changes and the back pain, as these indicate a potential retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Retroperitoneal hemorrhage is a severe and potentially life-threatening complication of a percutaneous coronary intervention performed via the femoral artery. Because the bleeding occurs internally into the retroperitoneal space, the external groin dressing often remains dry and intact. The classic manifestations include a new onset of lower back or flank pain accompanied by signs of early hypovolemic shock, such as tachycardia and a dropping blood pressure. The practical nurse must recognize these critical trends and immediately notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider to initiate life-saving interventions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Compare the current vital signs to the baseline vital signs taken immediately after the procedure.
The blood pressure has dropped significantly (135/78 down to 108/62) and the heart rate has increased (78 up to 112).
Tracking vital sign trends is essential to identify early signs of hemodynamic instability or shock.
2
Correlate the vital sign changes with the client's new symptom of dull, aching back pain.
The combination of hypotension, tachycardia, and back pain following a femoral artery puncture strongly suggests internal bleeding.
Bleeding from a femoral puncture site can track backward into the retroperitoneal space, causing severe back or flank pain while the external dressing remains perfectly dry.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the practical nurse scope of practice.
The findings must be escalated immediately to the registered nurse or healthcare provider.
Retroperitoneal hemorrhage is a life-threatening complication that requires rapid medical intervention beyond the scope of independent practical nursing care.

Anahtar Kavram

Monitoring for and escalating signs of complications following invasive procedures (Reduction of Risk Potential).
Soru 799Soru →

An older adult resident at a skilled nursing facility experienced an unwitnessed ground-level fall earlier in the shift. During a follow-up evaluation, the licensed practical nurse observes a blood pressure of 94/58 mmHg94/58\text{ mmHg} (baseline 136/82 mmHg136/82\text{ mmHg}) and a heart rate of 114 beats/min114\text{ beats/min} (baseline 72 beats/min72\text{ beats/min}). The resident appears pale and reports feeling unusually fatigued. Which action is the priority for the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Immediately escalate these clinical findings to the supervising registered nurse.

Cevap

The priority action is to immediately notify the supervising registered nurse about the abnormal vital signs, which strongly suggest internal bleeding.
The correct action is to immediately alert the supervising registered nurse. A significant drop in blood pressure combined with tachycardia following physical trauma (such as a ground-level fall) strongly suggests internal bleeding and developing hypovolemic shock. This requires urgent medical evaluation, continuous monitoring, and intervention to reduce the risk of further decline.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the current vital signs and compare them against the resident's baseline data.
The resident has developed significant hypotension and tachycardia compared to their normal baseline.
Identifying deviations from baseline is a critical component of data collection for risk reduction.
2
Correlate the vital sign changes and physical presentation (pallor, fatigue) with the recent traumatic event.
The combination of the fall and the physiological changes indicates potential internal hemorrhage and early hypovolemic shock.
Recognizing the physiological signs of shock prevents life-threatening complications.
3
Determine the safest, most immediate intervention within the practical nursing scope of practice.
Escalation to the supervising registered nurse or healthcare provider is prioritized.
Practical nurses must promptly communicate critical physiological changes to ensure the client receives advanced medical evaluation and treatment.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition of Shock and Escalation of Care
Soru 800Soru →

An older adult resident in a long-term care facility requires a bed linen change and perineal care. The resident is currently receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a gastrostomy tube. What is the most important action for the nurse to perform before adjusting the bed to a flat position?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Pause the continuous enteral feeding pump.

Cevap

Pause the continuous enteral feeding pump.
Clients receiving continuous enteral feedings must have the head of the bed elevated to at least 30 to 45 degrees to prevent regurgitation and aspiration. When the head of the bed must be lowered for basic care procedures, such as a linen change or repositioning, the priority is to pause the feeding pump first. This action directly protects the client's airway.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary risk associated with lowering the head of the bed for a client receiving continuous enteral nutrition.
Laying the client flat increases the risk of gastric reflux and pulmonary aspiration.
Gravity is required to keep the enteral formula in the stomach and prevent it from flowing back up into the esophagus and airway.
2
Determine the necessary preventive intervention prior to moving the client.
The continuous feeding must be temporarily stopped.
Halting the flow of formula ensures the stomach volume does not increase while the client lacks the protective effect of gravity.

Anahtar Kavram

Aspiration Precautions and Enteral Feeding Management
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
ÖncekiSayfa 40 / 66Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-PN — Sayfa 40 | Examkin