Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 2441Soru →

An endocrinology unit is staffed by a registered nurse (RN), a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN), and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). The RN is reviewing the morning care requirements for four clients. Which client care activity is most safely delegated to the LPN/VN?

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Cevap: Administering routine subcutaneous insulin and changing a sterile heel ulcer dressing for a clinically stable client with type 2 diabetes.

Cevap

The most safely delegated task is administering routine subcutaneous insulin and changing a sterile heel ulcer dressing for a clinically stable client with type 2 diabetes.
Delegating the administration of routine subcutaneous insulin and a sterile dressing change for a stable client is correct because these tasks fall directly within the legal scope of practice for an LPN/VN. An LPN/VN is equipped to care for clinically stable clients with predictable health outcomes and perform technical skills such as medication administration and sterile procedures.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the staff mix and scope of practice constraints.
The team consists of an RN, an LPN/VN, and a UAP. The RN must retain tasks involving initial assessment, clinical judgment, initial teaching, and evaluation (often remembered by the acronym EAT).
Understanding the legal limitations of each role is necessary for safe delegation.
2
Evaluate each client vignette for stability and complexity.
The newly admitted client with DKA, the newly diagnosed client needing teaching, and the unresponsive hypoglycemic client are all unstable or require complex RN-level skills.
Unstable clients or those with unpredictable outcomes must be assigned to the RN.
3
Identify the task that matches the LPN/VN scope of practice.
The stable client needing routine medication and a sterile dressing change perfectly matches the LPN/VN capabilities.
LPN/VNs are trained to care for stable clients with predictable outcomes, administer standard medications, and perform sterile procedures.

Anahtar Kavram

Scope of practice and safe delegation principles for LPN/VNs.
Soru 2442Soru →

A nurse is providing care on a medical-surgical unit and managing protected health information (PHI) throughout the shift. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrate appropriate adherence to client confidentiality and electronic information security standards? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Disposing of printed shift handoff sheets in a designated secure shredding bin prior to leaving the facility.; Locking the screen of the mobile electronic health record workstation before turning away to assist a client with repositioning.; Requesting the facility-assigned authorization code from a caller before providing a telephone update on the client's condition.

Cevap

The correct actions are disposing of printed handoff sheets in a secure shredding bin, locking the mobile workstation screen when turning away, and requesting an authorization code before providing telephone updates.
Appropriate adherence to confidentiality includes utilizing secure disposal methods for physical documents containing protected health information, immediately locking electronic workstation screens when attention is diverted, and implementing verification protocols (like passcodes) prior to releasing information over the telephone.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the requirement for information security and PHI protection under standard nursing guidelines and HIPAA.
Identify that strict protocols govern physical documents, electronic access, and verbal disclosures.
Understanding these categories is necessary to evaluate the appropriateness of each scenario.
2
Evaluate the actions regarding physical documents and electronic access.
Securely shredding handoff sheets and locking the EHR screen when turning away are both required practices to prevent unauthorized access.
Physical papers and unattended screens are common sources of unintentional privacy breaches.
3
Assess the actions involving verbal disclosures and interdisciplinary communication.
Verifying a caller's authorization code is a correct safeguard. However, withholding suspected abuse reports from protective services is a violation of mandatory reporting laws, and sharing a logged-in computer session is a direct breach of IT security policies.
HIPAA provides exceptions for mandatory reporting, and personal accountability requires staff to solely use their own login credentials.

Anahtar Kavram

Confidentiality and Information Security
Soru 2443Soru →

A hospital's rapid response team is summoned to a general medical floor for a client experiencing acute respiratory failure. The client is currently undergoing treatment for crusted (Norwegian) scabies and was diagnosed earlier in the day with Mycoplasma pneumoniae. The responding personnel must immediately initiate bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation. Which infection control measures must the team implement during this emergency? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Don an N95 filtering facepiece respirator or higher-level respiratory protection before initiating airway management.; Ensure all responding personnel wear a fluid-resistant isolation gown and clean examination gloves.; Utilize protective eyewear, such as tightly fitting goggles or a full face shield, during the procedure.

Cevap

The team must don an N95 respirator or higher, wear a fluid-resistant isolation gown with clean gloves, and utilize protective eyewear during the procedure.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically requires droplet precautions. However, bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation is an aerosol-generating procedure (AGP). When an AGP is performed on a client with a droplet-transmitted respiratory infection, precautions must be escalated to airborne-level respiratory protection, requiring an N95 respirator or PAPR, along with eye protection. Additionally, crusted (Norwegian) scabies is highly contagious and necessitates strict contact precautions; therefore, a fluid-resistant gown and gloves must be worn by anyone entering the client's room.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the baseline transmission-based precautions for the client's current infections.
Crusted scabies requires Contact precautions; Mycoplasma pneumoniae requires Droplet precautions.
To determine the minimum baseline personal protective equipment (PPE) required for room entry.
2
Evaluate the impact of the planned emergency intervention (BVM ventilation) on infection control requirements.
BVM ventilation is classified as an aerosol-generating procedure (AGP).
AGPs aerosolize respiratory secretions, significantly increasing the risk of airborne transmission.
3
Determine the necessary escalation of respiratory PPE based on the AGP.
Personnel must escalate from Droplet to Airborne precautions, requiring an N95 respirator and eye protection.
Standard surgical masks do not adequately protect against fine aerosolized particles generated during an AGP.
4
Integrate the required precautions for all conditions present.
The team needs Contact precautions (gown, gloves) for scabies, plus Airborne/AGP precautions (N95, eye protection) for the respiratory pathogen.
To ensure comprehensive protection against all active transmission routes.
5
Evaluate each option against these synthesized requirements and clinical safety principles.
Select options that include N95, gown, gloves, and eye protection, while rejecting contraindicated actions like masking the client during ventilation or exposing non-essential staff.
To identify the correct evidence-based interventions for this complex scenario.

Anahtar Kavram

Escalation of Droplet Precautions to Airborne Precautions during Aerosol-Generating Procedures (AGPs) combined with strict Contact Precautions.
Soru 2444Soru →

A client in the intensive care unit is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine via a central venous catheter for profound septic shock. The smart infusion pump abruptly alarms with a "Distal Occlusion" alert. The client's mean arterial pressure (MAP) drops from 68 mm Hg to 52 mm Hg. The nurse quickly traces the external tubing and finds no closed clamps or kinks. To prevent severe client injury, which action must the nurse take next?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Disconnect the IV tubing and gently aspirate from the central catheter hub using an empty syringe to remove the potential micro-thrombus.

Cevap

The nurse must gently aspirate from the central catheter hub using an empty syringe to attempt to clear the occlusion.
The correct action addresses the mechanical occlusion without introducing a lethal pharmacological risk. When a central line infusing a high-concentration vasoactive medication (like norepinephrine) occludes, a significant amount of the potent drug remains trapped in the catheter's internal lumen. The nurse must gently aspirate to remove the clot and the trapped drug. Flushing the line is strictly contraindicated, as it would push the concentrated medication bolus directly into the central circulation, potentially precipitating a fatal cardiac event.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the mechanical problem and the pharmacological risk.
The central line is occluded, and the catheter dead space is filled with concentrated norepinephrine.
Understanding what is inside the occluded tubing is critical before manipulating it.
2
Evaluate the risk of flushing the line.
Flushing would deliver a rapid, unintended bolus of the vasopressor into the central circulation.
A sudden bolus of norepinephrine can cause a lethal hypertensive crisis, myocardial infarction, or severe arrhythmias.
3
Determine the safest method to clear the line.
Aspirating from the hub pulls the clot and the residual medication out of the client's body.
This clears the line while completely avoiding the catastrophic risk of a medication bolus, directly preventing client injury.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of high-alert medication boluses during intravenous catheter troubleshooting.
Soru 2445Soru →

A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) and a documented history of severe alcohol use disorder is admitted to an airborne infection isolation room (AIIR). Twenty-four hours after admission, the client becomes profoundly disoriented, experiences visual hallucinations, and repeatedly attempts to leave the room, stating they must "go to work immediately." What is the safest and most appropriate initial nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Don a fit-tested N95 respirator, enter the room to implement verbal de-escalation, and prepare to administer prescribed symptom-triggered medications.

Cevap

The nurse should put on the required personal protective equipment (an N95 respirator), enter the room to calm the client using verbal de-escalation, and treat the underlying cause of the agitation (alcohol withdrawal) with prescribed medications.
The safest approach is to directly address the client's agitation—which is likely caused by alcohol withdrawal—using the least restrictive measures first. Donning an N95 respirator ensures the nurse is protected from tuberculosis, while verbal de-escalation and symptom-triggered medications (such as benzodiazepines) safely manage the withdrawal delirium without compromising infection control or patient rights.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and identify the underlying risks.
The client is exhibiting signs of delirium tremens (alcohol withdrawal) combined with a high risk of breaching airborne isolation.
Identifying the root cause of the behavior is essential for selecting the correct and safest intervention.
2
Evaluate the environmental and infection control constraints for the unit.
The client must remain in the negative pressure room with the door strictly closed, and staff must wear N95 respirators before entering.
Airborne precautions must be maintained without compromise to prevent the nosocomial transmission of tuberculosis.
3
Select the intervention that ensures safety without violating nursing standards or infection control.
Entering the room with proper PPE to de-escalate and medicate addresses both the behavioral risk and the infection control requirement safely.
This approach correctly prioritizes least restrictive measures, avoids improper delegation, and maintains isolation integrity.

Anahtar Kavram

Managing behavioral emergencies in isolation environments requires addressing the root cause of agitation while strictly adhering to transmission-based precautions and safe delegation principles.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2446Soru →

A client recovering from Guillain-Barré syndrome is preparing for discharge from a rehabilitation unit. The client has regained lower extremity strength and ambulates with a walker, but continues to experience profound bilateral hand weakness. The client is tearful and states, "I am terrified to go home. I cannot even hold a fork to eat or button my own shirt." Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Collaborate with the healthcare provider to initiate an occupational therapy evaluation for adaptive daily living strategies.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to collaborate with the healthcare provider to initiate an occupational therapy evaluation for adaptive daily living strategies.
Occupational therapy (OT) specializes in fine motor skills, upper extremity function, and activities of daily living (ADLs). For a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome experiencing persistent hand weakness that impairs self-care tasks like eating and dressing, the occupational therapist is the most appropriate interdisciplinary team member to consult. The OT can evaluate the client's specific needs, recommend adaptive equipment (such as weighted utensils or button hooks), and teach energy conservation techniques, which are essential for a safe and successful discharge home.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and stated concerns.
The client has fine motor deficits (bilateral hand weakness) that are severely impacting activities of daily living (ADLs) such as eating and dressing.
Identifying the specific deficit is necessary to determine the appropriate interdisciplinary referral.
2
Differentiate the scopes of practice of interdisciplinary team members.
Physical therapy focuses on gross motor skills and mobility (which the client has regained). Speech-language pathology focuses on communication and swallowing. Occupational therapy focuses on fine motor skills and ADLs.
Ensures the referral is directed to the correct specialist.
3
Evaluate the nursing actions in the distractors against safe practice standards.
Delegating teaching to a UAP is unsafe and outside their scope. Prioritizing an airway assessment without clinical indications is an incorrect application of the ABC framework. Providing false reassurance is nontherapeutic.
Eliminates incorrect options based on core nursing principles of delegation, prioritization, and therapeutic communication.

Anahtar Kavram

The occupational therapist is the interdisciplinary team member responsible for evaluating and treating deficits related to fine motor skills and activities of daily living (ADLs), including the use of adaptive equipment.
Soru 2447Soru →

A nurse receives the shift handoff report for four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first to prevent a potential injury or adverse event?

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Cevap: A client with acute confusion who is wandering the hallway and actively pulling at their peripheral intravenous (IV) line.

Cevap

The client with acute confusion who is wandering the hallway and actively pulling at their peripheral intravenous (IV) line.
The client who is confused, wandering, and pulling at an IV line requires immediate assessment because they are actively engaging in unsafe behavior without supervision. This situation presents a high, immediate risk for falls, bleeding, and loss of essential intravenous access.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the immediate safety risk of each client based on the ABCs and Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
Identify which client presents the most immediate threat to their own physical safety or the safety of others.
Prioritization requires addressing acute, unmitigated risks before addressing stable or protected clients.
2
Evaluate the confused, wandering client.
Determine that this client is unmonitored and actively engaging in behavior that could immediately lead to a fall, bleeding, or loss of essential IV access.
Wandering with an IV line presents an acute, real-time safety hazard that requires immediate de-escalation and intervention.
3
Compare the acute risk of the wandering client to the remaining clients.
Conclude that the other clients either have safety measures in place (an activated bed alarm), are appropriately delegated for non-clinical tasks (meal setup), or are maintaining safety within their room boundaries (pacing in isolation).
The other situations are either stable or represent a lower acuity of risk compared to the unmonitored, confused client.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of Client Safety and Injury Prevention
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 2448Soru →

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for an alert and oriented client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. A police officer approaches the nurse and requests a copy of the client's blood alcohol laboratory results for an ongoing investigation. The officer does not possess a court order, warrant, or subpoena. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Explain that the requested information cannot be released without the client's explicit authorization or a valid legal document.

Cevap

The nurse must explain that the requested information cannot be released without the client's explicit authorization or a valid legal document.
Under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), a client's protected health information (PHI) is strictly confidential. Unless a specific legal exception applies, law enforcement officials must obtain a subpoena, a court order, a warrant, or the client's explicit written consent to access medical records, including blood alcohol levels. Because the client is alert and oriented, they have the right to authorize or deny this disclosure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the request from the police officer.
The officer is requesting protected health information (PHI) without a warrant, subpoena, or court order.
Identifying the legal standing of the request is essential for HIPAA compliance.
2
Assess the client's status and ability to consent.
The client is alert and oriented, meaning they are capable of providing or denying consent.
Clients who are competent retain the right to control who accesses their medical records.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention.
The nurse must decline the officer's request to protect the client's confidentiality.
Without a valid legal mandate or the client's explicit consent, releasing PHI to law enforcement is a direct violation of confidentiality laws.

Anahtar Kavram

Confidentiality and HIPAA regulations regarding law enforcement
Soru 2449Soru →

A registered nurse is assigned to the day shift at an ambulatory care clinic. Upon reviewing the schedule, the nurse notes that a designated client is scheduled for an elective pregnancy termination. The nurse holds deep personal moral objections to this specific procedure. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in accordance with ethical nursing practice guidelines?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Promptly ask the clinical supervisor for a reassignment while continuing to provide safe care until a replacement nurse is available.

Cevap

Promptly ask the clinical supervisor for a reassignment while continuing to provide safe care until a replacement nurse is available.
According to ethical guidelines, nurses are entitled to conscientious objection if a procedure profoundly violates their personal moral beliefs. However, this right does not override the fundamental duty to ensure client safety and prevent harm (nonmaleficence). The nurse must communicate the objection to nursing leadership and is obligated to provide continuous, safe, and respectful care until alternative nursing arrangements are secured.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary ethical conflict in the scenario.
The nurse faces a conflict between personal moral beliefs (conscientious objection) and the professional duty to provide safe, non-judgmental client care.
Understanding the nature of the conflict is required to apply the appropriate ethical framework.
2
Evaluate the professional standards regarding conscientious objection.
Nurses have the right to refuse participation in a particular case on moral grounds, but they cannot abandon the client.
Professional guidelines dictate that client safety and continuity of care must be maintained during any transfer of responsibility.
3
Analyze the options to find the action that balances the nurse's moral rights with client safety.
Requesting reassignment while providing interim care protects the client from harm while respecting the nurse's moral boundaries.
Leaving the area constitutes abandonment, inappropriate delegation compromises the standard of care, and silent treatment is non-therapeutic.

Anahtar Kavram

Conscientious Objection and Client Abandonment
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 2450Soru →

An external mass casualty incident occurs, and the hospital activates its emergency response plan. The nurse is performing disaster triage in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse assign a "red tag" (immediate priority)?

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Cevap: A client with an open femur fracture, absent radial pulses, and a respiratory rate of 34 breaths per minute.

Cevap

The client with an open femur fracture, absent radial pulses, and a respiratory rate of 34 breaths per minute should be assigned a red tag.
In disaster triage, a red tag (immediate) is assigned to clients with life-threatening injuries who have a high probability of survival if treated rapidly. Key indicators include a respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths per minute, absent radial pulses indicating shock, or an inability to follow simple commands. The client with the open femur fracture meets these criteria.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recall the categories of the disaster triage system.
Green is for the walking wounded, yellow is for delayed care, red is for immediate life-threatening but treatable conditions, and black is for expectant (deceased or unsalvageable).
Applying the correct triage criteria is essential during a mass casualty incident to do the greatest good for the greatest number of people.
2
Evaluate each client's presentation against the criteria for a red tag (Immediate).
Red tag criteria include an altered mental status, absent radial pulses (capillary refill > 2 seconds), or a respiratory rate > 30 breaths per minute.
Identifying clients who meet the red tag criteria ensures those with life-threatening, salvageable conditions receive prioritized care.
3
Identify the client who meets the immediate criteria.
The client with the open femur fracture has absent radial pulses and a respiratory rate over 30, meeting the criteria for a red tag.
This client has an immediate threat to life (shock and respiratory distress) but can potentially be saved with rapid intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Disaster Triage Prioritization (START Method)
Soru 2451Soru →

A nurse is evaluating an adult client admitted with acute pancreatitis who is receiving aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation. Which of the following clinical findings indicate a developing complication that requires immediate intervention? (Select all that apply)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Carpal spasm occurring when the blood pressure cuff is inflated; New-onset fine crackles auscultated in the bilateral lung bases; Increasing abdominal rigidity and a board-like feel upon palpation

Cevap

The findings requiring immediate intervention are carpal spasm during blood pressure measurement, new-onset fine crackles in the lung bases, and increasing abdominal rigidity.
The correct answers identify life-threatening complications associated with acute pancreatitis and its treatment. Carpal spasm (Trousseau's sign) indicates severe hypocalcemia caused by retroperitoneal fat necrosis. New-onset crackles suggest fluid volume overload from aggressive fluid resuscitation or the development of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). A rigid, board-like abdomen is a classic sign of peritonitis, which can result from pancreatic rupture or severe internal hemorrhage.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current diagnosis and treatment plan.
The client has acute pancreatitis and is receiving large volumes of intravenous fluids for resuscitation.
Understanding the pathophysiology and treatments helps identify potential systemic complications.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding to differentiate between expected disease manifestations and unstable complications.
Epigastric pain radiating to the back and assuming a fetal position are expected findings. The ABG values are normal.
Risk reduction requires prioritizing unexpected, life-threatening physiological changes over expected symptoms.
3
Identify the critical indicators of physiological deterioration.
Trousseau's sign (carpal spasm) indicates severe hypocalcemia. Crackles indicate fluid overload or ARDS. A board-like abdomen indicates peritonitis.
These three findings represent acute, potentially fatal complications that demand immediate medical intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential in Acute Pancreatitis
Soru 2452Soru →

Match each client clinical scenario to the most appropriate infection control precaution category required for their care.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

A client presenting with hemoptysis, night sweats, and a sputum smear positive for acid-fast bacilli (AFB).
A client admitted with a persistent hacking cough and a confirmed diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
A client presenting with intense pruritus and an active infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei.
A client with a history of chronic hepatitis C admitted for management of hepatic encephalopathy.

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Acid-fast bacilli maps to Airborne Precautions. Mycoplasma pneumoniae maps to Droplet Precautions. Sarcoptes scabiei maps to Contact Precautions. Hepatitis C maps to Standard Precautions.
Each client scenario presents a unique transmission risk. Acid-fast bacilli (tuberculosis) requires Airborne Precautions due to small aerosolized particles. Mycoplasma pneumoniae requires Droplet Precautions for large respiratory secretions. Sarcoptes scabiei requires Contact Precautions due to direct skin-to-skin transmission risk. Hepatitis C is a bloodborne pathogen that is safely managed with Standard Precautions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the transmission risk for the client with acid-fast bacilli (AFB).
AFB in sputum indicates pulmonary tuberculosis, requiring Airborne Precautions.
Tuberculosis is transmitted via small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air over long distances.
2
Analyze the transmission risk for the client with Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is transmitted via large respiratory particles, requiring Droplet Precautions.
These larger droplets do not remain suspended in the air and typically travel no more than 3 feet.
3
Analyze the transmission risk for the client with Sarcoptes scabiei.
Scabies is caused by a mite transmitted through direct skin contact, requiring Contact Precautions.
Gowns and gloves prevent the transfer of the mite to the healthcare worker's clothing and skin.
4
Analyze the transmission risk for the client with Hepatitis C.
Hepatitis C is bloodborne and does not require isolation; Standard Precautions apply.
Standard precautions protect healthcare workers from bloodborne pathogens without the need for a dedicated isolation room or routine specialized PPE, unless fluid exposure is anticipated.

Anahtar Kavram

Appropriate selection of infection control isolation precautions based on the specific pathogen's mode of transmission.
Soru 2453Soru →

A nurse enters a client's room and discovers a small fire in the trash can. Arrange the following actions in the correct priority sequence according to standard facility emergency response protocols.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence follows the RACE protocol: Rescue the client, Activate the alarm, Contain the fire by closing the door, and Extinguish the fire.
The RACE acronym (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish) dictates the priority of actions during a facility fire. The nurse must first Rescue anyone in immediate danger, then activate the Alarm to notify others, Contain the fire by closing doors, and finally Extinguish the fire if it is small and safe to do so.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the immediate threat and prioritize client safety.
The nurse rescues the client by removing them from the room.
Life safety is always the first priority in an internal emergency such as a fire.
2
Notify the facility and authorities.
The nurse activates the fire alarm.
Early notification ensures that additional help is on the way and other staff are aware of the emergency.
3
Limit the spread of the hazard.
The nurse closes the door to the client's room.
Closing doors and windows contains the fire and prevents the spread of smoke to other areas.
4
Address the hazard directly if safe to do so.
The nurse uses a fire extinguisher to put out the small fire.
Once people are safe, the alarm is sounding, and the area is contained, trained staff can attempt to extinguish a small, manageable fire.

Anahtar Kavram

Internal Emergency Response (RACE Protocol)
Soru 2454Soru →

A unit manager is rounding with the infectious disease team to evaluate clients currently on transmission-based precautions. Based on standard infection control guidelines, which client meets the strict clinical criteria for the safe discontinuation of their current isolation precautions?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A client with a primary varicella-zoster infection whose temperature is normal and whose entire vesicular rash has completely dried and crusted over

Cevap

The client with primary varicella-zoster whose entire rash has completely crusted over can safely have their precautions discontinued.
Transmission of the varicella-zoster virus occurs via aerosolized respiratory droplets and direct contact with vesicular fluid. Once all vesicles have dried and formed crusts, the virus is no longer actively shed, and the client is no longer considered contagious. At this precise clinical milestone, both airborne and contact precautions can be safely discontinued.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the discontinuation criteria for pulmonary tuberculosis.
The client has only two negative AFB smears; three are required.
To ensure the client is no longer actively shedding Mycobacterium tuberculosis, guidelines strictly require three consecutive negative smears.
2
Evaluate the discontinuation criteria for primary varicella-zoster virus.
The client's vesicles are completely crusted over.
Crusted lesions indicate the active viral shedding phase has ended, making the client non-infectious.
3
Evaluate the discontinuation criteria for Clostridioides difficile.
The client has been diarrhea-free for only 24 hours; a minimum of 48 hours is required.
C. difficile spores can continue shedding in the immediate period after symptoms resolve, necessitating a longer observation period.
4
Evaluate the discontinuation criteria for Neisseria meningitidis.
The client has received antibiotics for 12 hours; 24 hours of therapy is mandatory.
Nasopharyngeal secretions remain infectious until 24 full hours of effective antibiotics have been administered.

Anahtar Kavram

Discontinuation Criteria for Transmission-Based Precautions
Soru 2455Soru →

A nurse working on a postpartum unit has just completed receiving handoff report for four assigned clients. Which client condition necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A client who is 2 hours post-vaginal delivery, passing multiple large blood clots, and exhibiting a blood pressure of 90/58 mm Hg

Cevap

The client who is 2 hours post-vaginal delivery passing large blood clots and exhibiting a low blood pressure requires immediate intervention.
The correct answer identifies a client experiencing active bleeding (passing multiple large clots) accompanied by hypotension (90/58 mm Hg). These are classic indicators of postpartum hemorrhage leading to hypovolemic shock. Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework, this client has a critical circulation deficit. Unstable, life-threatening physiological conditions always dictate the highest nursing priority.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation of each client to differentiate between expected postpartum findings and acute complications.
Three clients present with expected postpartum pain or normal physiological changes, while one client shows signs of severe acute bleeding.
Identifying the stability of each client is the first step in applying triage principles.
2
Apply the Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABCs) priority framework.
The client with blood clots and hypotension has a critical circulation impairment.
Life-threatening physiological deficits must always be addressed before localized pain or expected physiological adaptations.
3
Determine the highest priority client.
The bleeding, hypotensive client is the top priority and must be seen immediately.
Delaying care for potential hypovolemic shock can lead to severe maternal morbidity.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in nursing care relies on identifying acute physiological threats, utilizing the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework, and distinguishing expected clinical findings from unstable complications.
Soru 2456Soru →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client with progressive dementia who has recently experienced several falls. The client's adult child is highly anxious and demands that the nurse immediately apply physical restraints to keep the client in bed. The nurse recognizes an ethical conflict between the family's request and the principle of nonmaleficence. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrate ethical practice and appropriate client advocacy? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Explain to the adult child that restraints are a measure of last resort after less restrictive alternatives have been exhausted.; Assess the client for underlying causes of restlessness, such as pain, hypoxia, or the need to void.; Implement less restrictive safety measures, such as a bed alarm and placing a mat next to a low bed.

Cevap

The correct actions are explaining the necessity of using less restrictive measures, assessing for underlying causes of restlessness, and implementing alternatives like bed alarms.
The correct actions uphold the ethical principles of nonmaleficence (avoiding harm) and beneficence (doing good). The nurse acts as an advocate by identifying the root cause of agitation, using less restrictive safety measures, and educating the family about restraint policies. All of these interventions prioritize the client's well-being and legal rights without resorting to immediate physical restriction.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the ethical dilemma presented in the scenario.
The nurse must balance the family's demand for restraints (perceived safety) against the client's right to the least restrictive environment (nonmaleficence and autonomy).
Recognizing competing ethical principles is the first step in ethical decision-making.
2
Evaluate each option against the principles of beneficence, nonmaleficence, and veracity.
Actions that investigate the root cause, use alternative safety measures, and provide honest education align with ethical nursing standards.
Nursing interventions must be legally and ethically sound, prioritizing client safety without causing unnecessary harm or making false promises.

Anahtar Kavram

Ethical Practice: Nonmaleficence and Beneficence in Restraint Use
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2457Soru →

A multidisciplinary healthcare team is providing care for a client isolated on contact precautions due to an uncontained methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA) infection of a sacral pressure injury. Which actions by the team members demonstrate correct application of infection control principles? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: Leaving a dedicated stethoscope and blood pressure cuff inside the client's room for ongoing use.; Performing hand hygiene with an alcohol-based hand rub immediately after doffing gloves.; Applying a fresh, dry dressing over the sacral wound prior to transporting the client to the radiology department.

Cevap

The correct actions include leaving dedicated equipment in the room, using alcohol-based hand rubs for hand hygiene, and covering the infected wound during transport.
Clients with MRSA require contact precautions. Proper adherence includes using dedicated medical equipment to prevent cross-contamination, performing hand hygiene with alcohol-based rubs (which are highly effective against non-spore-forming organisms like MRSA), and containing the source of infection by applying a clean dressing over the wound before any necessary transport outside the room.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the transmission mode and required precautions for the specified pathogen.
MRSA requires Contact Precautions.
MRSA is transmitted via direct or indirect contact with the client or their environment.
2
Determine the appropriate use and management of medical equipment.
Equipment such as stethoscopes should be dedicated to the client and left in the room.
Sharing equipment between clients without extensive disinfection spreads contact pathogens.
3
Evaluate the hand hygiene method.
Alcohol-based hand rubs are correct and effective for MRSA.
Unlike spore-forming bacteria (e.g., C. difficile), MRSA is readily eradicated by alcohol-based sanitizers.
4
Evaluate transport requirements.
The wound must be covered with a clean dressing before transport.
Source control prevents the shedding of infectious material into the hospital environment during movement.

Anahtar Kavram

Contact Precautions for MRSA
Soru 2458Soru →

An older adult client with severe delirium is continuously attempting to pull out a nasogastric tube and intravenous lines. After least restrictive measures have failed, the primary health care provider prescribes bilateral soft limb restraints. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to ensure client safety?

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first discuss the rationale with the client and family, then inspect the skin and apply padding, fasten the cuff and verify a two-finger fit, tie the straps to the movable bed frame with a quick-release knot, and finally release the device every 2 hours for care and assessment.
Safe application of restraints follows a logical progression from education and assessment to application and ongoing monitoring. Communication is prioritized to respect client rights and reduce fear. Next, skin assessment and padding prevent integumentary injury. Fastening the cuff and checking the two-finger fit ensures circulation is maintained before the limb is secured. Anchoring the straps to the movable bed frame with a quick-release knot guarantees safety during bed adjustments and emergencies. Finally, establishing a rigid schedule for releasing the restraints prevents long-term complications of immobility.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Discuss the rationale for the intervention and its temporary nature with the client and family.
The client and family are informed about the safety necessity of the intervention.
Ethical and legal guidelines require informed communication before applying restrictive devices, setting a foundation of trust and understanding.
2
Inspect the skin over the wrists and apply protective padding to bony prominences.
Baseline skin status is noted and the wrists are protected from friction.
Padding prevents mechanical injury and skin breakdown caused by the restraint rubbing against bony areas.
3
Fasten the restraint cuff around the wrist, verifying fit by slipping two fingers under the device.
The restraint is secured on the client with appropriate tightness.
The two-finger check ensures that the restraint is not overly tight, which could compromise neurovascular function and lead to ischemic injury.
4
Tie the straps to the movable part of the bed frame using a quick-release knot.
The restraint is anchored safely to the bed.
Securing to the movable frame ensures the restraint does not tighten if the head of the bed is raised. A quick-release knot allows immediate removal during an emergency.
5
Release the device every 2 hours to provide skin care, toileting, and range-of-motion exercises.
The client receives continuous monitoring and necessary basic care.
Regular removal prevents complications of immobility, such as contractures, pressure injuries, and severe distress, ensuring ongoing safety.

Anahtar Kavram

Physical restraint application and safety monitoring sequence
Soru 2459Soru →

A client is admitted to the inpatient behavioral health unit with acute mania. The client begins pacing the hallway rapidly, shouting loudly, and kicking empty chairs, but has not physically threatened staff or other clients. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the registered nurse, 'This client is going to hurt someone. We should put them in restraints right now. I will go get the leather straps.' Based on the ethical principle of nonmaleficence and legal client rights, which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

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Cevap: Intervene by utilizing verbal de-escalation techniques and offering the client a prescribed PRN antianxiety medication.

Cevap

The nurse must prioritize interventions that minimize restriction by first attempting verbal de-escalation and offering a prescribed PRN medication.
Clients in behavioral health settings retain their legal and ethical right to receive care in the least restrictive environment. The ethical principles of nonmaleficence (doing no harm) and respect for human dignity dictate that the nurse must prioritize interventions that minimize restriction while maintaining unit safety. Because the client has not physically harmed anyone, the nurse is ethically and legally required to first attempt less restrictive alternatives, such as verbal de-escalation, reducing environmental stimuli, or offering a prescribed PRN medication. Physical restraints are strictly a measure of last resort.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's behavior and the UAP's suggested intervention.
The client is highly agitated and disruptive but not currently a direct physical threat; the UAP is suggesting an immediate, highly restrictive intervention.
To determine the immediate safety needs of the milieu and evaluate the appropriateness of the proposed action.
2
Apply ethical and legal standards regarding psychiatric client rights.
The client has the legal right to the least restrictive environment. Nursing practice is guided by nonmaleficence (do no harm) and mandates avoiding unnecessary restraints.
Ethical practice requires balancing milieu safety with the individual client's autonomy and dignity.
3
Select the most appropriate nursing intervention.
The nurse must decline the UAP's suggestion and attempt less restrictive measures, such as verbal de-escalation and chemical restraint (PRN medication), before considering physical restraints.
This upholds the client's rights while safely addressing the escalating behavior in accordance with the ANA Code of Ethics.

Anahtar Kavram

Ethical Practice: Least Restrictive Environment
Soru 2460Soru →

A registered nurse (RN) on a medical oncology unit is organizing the shift assignments. The care team consists of the RN, a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN), and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following task assignments are appropriate for the RN to delegate? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: UAP: Assisting a client experiencing severe fatigue with routine morning oral hygiene; LPN/VN: Administering a scheduled subcutaneous antiemetic injection to a client reporting nausea; UAP: Documenting the oral fluid intake and urine output for a client on maintenance intravenous fluids

Cevap

The appropriate tasks to delegate are: having the UAP assist with oral hygiene, having the LPN/VN administer the subcutaneous antiemetic, and having the UAP document intake and output.
Safe delegation requires assigning tasks that fall within each team member's legal scope of practice. The UAP is fully qualified to assist with basic activities of daily living (ADLs), such as oral hygiene, and to perform routine measurements like documenting intake and output. The LPN/VN is licensed to administer routine medications, including subcutaneous injections, to clients whose conditions are stable.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client needs and the specific requirements of each task.
Determine whether each task involves clinical judgment, nursing assessment, evaluation, or initial teaching.
Tasks requiring independent nursing judgment or application of the nursing process must be retained by the RN.
2
Evaluate the scope of practice for the LPN/VN.
Identify that administering a subcutaneous medication is within their scope, but performing an initial assessment or formulating a teaching plan is not.
The LPN/VN cares for stable clients with predictable outcomes and can reinforce teaching, but cannot initiate complex care plans or perform initial assessments.
3
Evaluate the scope of practice for the UAP.
Identify that assisting with ADLs and recording intake/output are appropriate, but evaluating pain relief is outside their scope.
UAPs are trained to perform routine, standard tasks that do not require clinical nursing judgment.

Anahtar Kavram

Scope of practice and safe delegation principles based on the NCSBN guidelines (RNs do not delegate Evaluation, Assessment, or Teaching).
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