Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 2461Soru →

While conducting hourly rounds, a nurse evaluates a client who sustained a T4 spinal cord injury three weeks ago. The client suddenly reports a severe, throbbing headache and blurred vision. The nurse notes profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury and a blood pressure of 215/115 mm Hg. Arrange the following clinical interventions in the prioritized sequence they should be performed.

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Cevap

The correct sequence of actions for managing autonomic dysreflexia is to first place the client in an upright position, then identify and relieve the triggering stimulus, followed by administering prescribed antihypertensives if the blood pressure remains elevated, and finally documenting the event.
In the setting of autonomic dysreflexia, the immediate life-threatening risk is a cerebrovascular accident due to severe hypertension. Raising the head of the bed is the fastest, non-invasive way to lower blood pressure via orthostasis. The next step is to find and eliminate the underlying cause (usually bladder distention). Medications follow if symptoms persist, and documentation concludes the triage process.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed to a sitting or high-Fowler's position.
The client is placed in an upright posture.
This utilizes gravity to induce orthostatic hypotension, immediately helping to lower the dangerously high blood pressure and reduce the imminent risk of a stroke.
2
Assess the urinary catheter for kinks and palpate the bladder for distention.
The triggering stimulus is evaluated and addressed.
Autonomic dysreflexia is most commonly triggered by a distended bladder or impacted bowel. Removing the noxious stimulus is the primary corrective treatment to stop the sympathetic reflex.
3
Administer the prescribed rapid-acting PRN antihypertensive medication.
Pharmacological treatment is delivered.
If the blood pressure remains critically elevated despite removing the noxious stimulus, pharmacological intervention is necessary to prevent target organ damage.
4
Document the clinical presentation, interventions performed, and client response.
The event is recorded in the medical record.
Accurate documentation is legally and clinically required but is a lower priority than life-saving interventions and must wait until the client is fully stabilized.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of Interventions for Autonomic Dysreflexia
Soru 2462Soru →

A home health nurse is evaluating an older adult client with significant mobility deficits. The nurse notes unexplained, patterned bruising on the client's upper extremities. The client becomes visibly fearful when their adult child, who acts as the primary caregiver, enters the room. When the caregiver briefly steps away, the client whispers to the nurse, "Please do not report anything. It will only make my situation worse." Which of the following actions demonstrates the most appropriate ethical nursing response?

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Cevap: Report the suspected maltreatment to the appropriate protective services agency despite the client's request.

Cevap

Report the suspected maltreatment to the appropriate protective services agency despite the client's request.
The correct action fulfills the ethical principle of nonmaleficence (doing no harm/preventing harm) and complies with the legal requirement of mandatory reporting. While nurses generally advocate for client autonomy and maintain confidentiality, these principles are limited when a vulnerable client's safety is at immediate risk due to suspected abuse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the ethical conflict presented in the clinical scenario.
The situation pits the principle of confidentiality (the client's request for secrecy) against nonmaleficence and legal obligations (suspected elder abuse).
Identifying the competing ethical principles is the necessary first step in resolving any clinical dilemma.
2
Determine the legal and ethical limits of client confidentiality.
Confidentiality is a fundamental ethical duty, but it must be breached when there is suspected abuse of a vulnerable adult.
Mandatory reporting laws override standard confidentiality agreements to protect clients who cannot protect themselves from ongoing harm.
3
Select the nursing action that fulfills both professional and legal obligations.
The nurse must report the objective findings of abuse to adult protective services.
Ensuring the safety of a vulnerable client and upholding the principle of nonmaleficence takes priority over maintaining absolute confidentiality.

Anahtar Kavram

Ethical Practice: Limits of Confidentiality and Mandatory Reporting
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 2463Soru →

An infection control clinical nurse specialist is conducting unannounced surveillance rounds across multiple high-acuity medical-surgical units. Which of the following observed actions by the healthcare team represent a breach in infection control protocols that requires immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) performs hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand rub after changing the soiled linens of a client with a confirmed *Clostridioides difficile* infection.; A nurse delegates the task of educating a visiting family member on the proper sequence for doffing contact precaution personal protective equipment (PPE) to a certified nursing assistant (CNA).; A charge nurse places a client with active, uncrusted varicella-zoster lesions into a private protective environment (PE) room equipped with positive-pressure airflow.

Cevap

The actions requiring immediate intervention are: using alcohol-based rub for C. difficile, delegating family PPE education to a UAP, and placing a varicella-zoster client in a positive-pressure room.
The actions requiring intervention are breaches of safety: 1) *C. difficile* spores are not eradicated by alcohol-based rubs; hand hygiene must be performed with soap and water to physically remove spores. 2) Client and family teaching is a core RN responsibility that cannot be delegated to a UAP/CNA. 3) Varicella-zoster requires Airborne precautions, which necessitates a negative-pressure Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR). Placing this client in a positive-pressure room actively blows contaminated air into the hospital corridor, endangering others.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the UAP's hand hygiene method for the client with C. difficile.
Alcohol does not kill C. difficile spores; soap and water are required. This is a protocol breach.
Spores require mechanical friction for removal.
2
Evaluate the RN's PPE choice during suctioning of an RSV client.
Suctioning is an aerosol-generating procedure (AGP). Escalation to N95/Airborne PPE is correct.
AGPs create small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air, requiring respiratory protection.
3
Evaluate the transporter's mask selection for the TB client.
Placing a surgical mask on the client is the correct source control method for transport.
Clients on airborne precautions wear standard surgical masks outside their rooms; N95s are for staff protection.
4
Evaluate the delegation of family education to a CNA.
Education is an RN responsibility and cannot be delegated. This is a protocol breach.
The nursing process (Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation/Teaching, Evaluation) cannot be delegated to UAPs.
5
Evaluate the room assignment for the varicella-zoster client.
Varicella requires negative-pressure (Airborne), not positive-pressure (Protective Environment). This is a severe breach.
Positive pressure pushes air out of the room into the hallway, exposing others to the airborne pathogen.
6
Evaluate the PPE doffing sequence for the airborne precautions room.
Removing the N95 respirator outside the room after closing the door is correct.
The AIIR contains suspended infectious aerosols; removing the respirator inside the room would lead to inhalation exposure.

Anahtar Kavram

Standard and transmission-based precautions require synthesizing knowledge of pathogen transmission routes, environmental airflow controls, appropriate PPE escalation for aerosol-generating procedures, and strict adherence to RN delegation scopes.
Soru 2464Soru →

A nurse is planning care for a client who is severely agitated, disoriented, and repeatedly attempting to remove a newly placed central venous catheter (CVC). The client has disseminated herpes zoster and is in a negative-pressure isolation room. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action by the nurse to prevent patient injury and ensure environmental safety?

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Cevap: Implement continuous one-to-one observation by a trained staff member equipped with appropriate airborne and contact personal protective equipment.

Cevap

Implement continuous one-to-one observation by a trained staff member equipped with appropriate airborne and contact personal protective equipment.
Implementing continuous one-to-one observation is the most appropriate initial action. It provides the least restrictive alternative to physical restraints while ensuring immediate intervention if the client attempts to remove the central line. Furthermore, ensuring the observer wears the correct personal protective equipment maintains adherence to the required airborne and contact precautions for disseminated herpes zoster.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's simultaneous safety risks
The client presents an immediate risk for self-injury through CVC removal, alongside a significant environmental infection risk due to an airborne and contact pathogen.
Recognizing overlapping priorities is essential for formulating a comprehensive safety plan.
2
Evaluate the hierarchy of injury prevention interventions
Physical restraints are identified as a last resort; a less restrictive alternative, such as a sitter, must be utilized first to protect the CVC.
Standard of care requires the maintenance of the least restrictive environment possible.
3
Determine appropriate delegation and isolation protocols
The plan must exclude UAP assessments (which violate scope of practice) and ensure the negative-pressure room door remains fully closed.
This ensures adherence to both legal delegation boundaries and critical infection control standards.

Anahtar Kavram

Accident, Error, and Injury Prevention (Restraint Alternatives, Delegation, and Isolation Integrity)
Soru 2465Soru →

A charge nurse is auditing the infection control protocols for a newly admitted client who has frequent, severe diarrhea testing positive for *Clostridioides difficile*, as well as a chronic productive cough with pending sputum cultures for suspected *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*. Which of the following actions are appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Place the client in a single-patient room equipped with negative-pressure airflow.; Perform hand hygiene strictly with soap and water upon exiting the client's environment.; Place a standard surgical mask on the client if transport to the radiology department is required.

Cevap

The appropriate actions include placing the client in a negative-pressure room, using soap and water for hand hygiene, and placing a standard surgical mask on the client during any necessary transport.
The client requires a combination of airborne precautions for suspected tuberculosis and contact/enteric precautions for Clostridioides difficile. A negative-pressure room is essential to prevent airborne transmission to other areas. Handwashing with soap and water is mandatory because alcohol-based rubs do not eradicate C. difficile spores. When a client on airborne precautions must be transported, they should wear a standard surgical mask to contain their respiratory secretions; an N95 is for staff protection, not client source control.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation to determine the necessary transmission-based precaution categories.
The client requires both Contact/Enteric precautions (for C. difficile) and Airborne precautions (for suspected tuberculosis).
Different pathogens have distinct modes of transmission that require specific, overlapping interventions when co-occurring.
2
Evaluate the room assignment and environmental requirements.
Airborne precautions mandate an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) with negative pressure.
Negative pressure ensures that airborne droplet nuclei do not circulate into the general hospital environment.
3
Determine the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and hand hygiene protocols for healthcare staff.
Enteric precautions require soap and water handwashing. Airborne precautions require staff to wear N95 respirators.
C. difficile spores are resistant to alcohol-based sanitizers. Tuberculosis droplet nuclei are small enough to pass through standard surgical masks.
4
Assess protocols for safe client transport and the appropriate boundaries of nursing delegation.
Clients on airborne isolation wear standard surgical masks during transport. Initial teaching cannot be delegated to UAPs.
Surgical masks on the client act as source control. Education is a core registered nursing responsibility.

Anahtar Kavram

Application of concurrent Airborne and Contact/Enteric Precautions
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2466Soru →

An emergency department nurse is sorting clients who have self-evacuated from a nearby industrial fire. A client approaches the triage desk walking independently and reports a minor burn on their left hand. Which of the following disaster triage tag colors should the nurse assign to this client?

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Cevap: Green

Cevap

The correct answer is the green tag, which is designated for minimal injuries in ambulatory clients.
The green triage tag is used for clients who are ambulatory and have minor injuries, often referred to as the 'walking wounded'. Because this client is walking independently and only has a minor burn, they fit this category perfectly and can safely wait for care.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's mobility and airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) status based on the scenario.
The client is walking independently and only reports a minor burn.
In mass casualty triage, ambulatory status is the first assessment step to identify the 'walking wounded'.
2
Correlate the client's status with the standard disaster triage categories.
Clients who are ambulatory with minor injuries are classified as 'Minimal'.
This classification ensures resources are prioritized for clients with life-threatening but salvageable conditions.
3
Select the color tag that corresponds to the 'Minimal' triage category.
The green tag corresponds to minimal, non-life-threatening injuries.
Standard triage colors are Red (Immediate), Yellow (Delayed), Green (Minimal), and Black (Expectant).

Anahtar Kavram

Disaster Triage Principles
Soru 2467Soru →

A nurse on a neurological step-down unit is caring for a client recovering from a traumatic brain injury. The client is restless, disoriented to place, and persistently picking at their peripheral intravenous (IV) line and surgical dressings. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action to protect the client from self-injury?

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Cevap: Conceal the intravenous line and surgical dressings using a protective stretch netting or a cohesive bandage.

Cevap

The correct action is to conceal the intravenous line and dressings using a protective wrap, cohesive bandage, or stretch netting.
Concealing intravenous lines and surgical dressings with a stretch net, cohesive bandage, or long sleeves is an effective, least-restrictive alternative to physical restraints. For a disoriented client, removing the visual trigger often prevents them from picking at the devices without the need to restrict their physical movement or cause unnecessary distress.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's behavior and determine the immediate risk level.
The client is restless, disoriented, and at high risk for self-injury by dislodging medical devices and exposing surgical sites.
Traumatic brain injury often causes altered cognition and restlessness, leading to unintentional interference with necessary medical equipment.
2
Identify the standard of care for injury prevention regarding agitated clients.
Nurses must consistently implement and document the least restrictive interventions first before considering any form of physical or chemical restraints.
This standard promotes client autonomy and complies with strict legal, ethical, and facility safety regulations regarding restraint application.
3
Evaluate the available options against the principle of utilizing the least restrictive alternative.
Concealing the lines is a non-restrictive safety measure that effectively removes the visual trigger for the client's picking behavior.
For a confused or disoriented client, removing the device from their direct line of sight often resolves the disruptive behavior without limiting their physical mobility.

Anahtar Kavram

In the management of a restless or disoriented client, the nurse must prioritize a safe environment by implementing the least restrictive interventions (such as concealing medical lines) before utilizing physical restraints.
Soru 2468Soru →

A client admitted to the emergency department with suspected substance-induced psychosis becomes physically violent toward staff, throwing equipment and attempting to strike the triage nurse. After verbal de-escalation and pharmacological interventions fail, the healthcare team applies four-point mechanical restraints. Which nursing action demonstrates strict adherence to safety and legal standards for violent restraints?

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Cevap: Verifying that the healthcare provider completes an in-person evaluation of the client within 1 hour of application.

Cevap

Verifying that the healthcare provider completes an in-person evaluation of the client within 1 hour of application.
For restraints applied due to violent or self-destructive behavior, strict legal and regulatory guidelines require a healthcare provider to perform an in-person, face-to-face evaluation within 1 hour of application. This ensures the intervention is medically necessary, the client is safe, and alternatives have been exhausted. Note that non-violent (medical-surgical) restraints typically allow for a face-to-face evaluation within 24 hours.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the type of restraint protocol being initiated based on the client's behavior.
The client is demonstrating physically violent and self-destructive behavior, requiring the 'violent restraint' protocol.
Violent restraints have much stricter legal and regulatory timelines compared to non-violent (medical-surgical) restraints.
2
Evaluate the regulatory timelines and provider requirements for violent restraints.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) require a face-to-face evaluation by a provider within 1 hour of application for violent restraints.
This strict mandate ensures that the most restrictive interventions are medically justified and the client's safety is rapidly reassessed by a licensed independent practitioner.
3
Evaluate the distractors for safety violations in application, delegation, and maintenance.
Tying to side rails with square knots, delegating clinical assessments to UAP, and releasing all restraints at once on a violent client are all critical safety or legal violations.
Identifying contraindicated practices reinforces proper evidence-based safety and delegation standards.

Anahtar Kavram

Violent Restraint Legal and Safety Standards
Soru 2469Soru →

A nurse is preparing to contact the healthcare provider regarding a client who is 2 days postoperative following a right total knee arthroplasty and suddenly develops acute dyspnea, tachycardia, and a dropping oxygen saturation. The nurse uses the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) communication tool. Arrange the following statements in the correct chronological order as they should be delivered during the report.

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Cevap

The correct sequence follows the SBAR format: 1. Situation, 2. Background, 3. Assessment, 4. Recommendation.
The correct sequence perfectly adheres to the SBAR protocol, which is the standard for escalating care to a provider. It begins by stating the immediate Situation, provides the contextual Background, delivers the current clinical Assessment data, and ends with a clear Recommendation for action.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the SBAR framework components required for structured interprofessional handoffs.
The components are Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation.
SBAR is a standardized communication tool used to clearly and accurately relay critical client information.
2
Determine the Situation (S).
The statement introducing the nurse, the location, the specific client, and the acute change in condition (sudden shortness of breath) is placed first.
The provider must immediately know who is calling, about whom, and the core problem.
3
Determine the Background (B).
The statement providing the client's age, surgical status (postoperative day 2 from total knee arthroplasty), and relevant history is placed second.
This provides essential clinical context for the acute change.
4
Determine the Assessment (A).
The statement detailing the most recent vital signs (heart rate 118 beats/min, O2 saturation 89%) and objective data is placed third.
This gives the provider the current clinical data needed to evaluate the severity of the situation.
5
Determine the Recommendation (R).
The statement suggesting a potential diagnosis (pulmonary embolism) and requesting immediate evaluation and diagnostic orders is placed last.
The communication concludes with a clear, actionable request based on the preceding clinical information.

Anahtar Kavram

SBAR Interprofessional Communication Model
Soru 2470Soru →

Several victims of an agricultural pesticide transport spill arrive unannounced outside the facility's emergency department. The clients are conscious, coughing continuously, and have an unknown liquid visible on their clothing. Which intervention is the priority for the nursing staff?

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Cevap: Direct the clients to a designated outdoor decontamination area for immediate showering and clothing removal.

Cevap

Direct the clients to a designated outdoor decontamination area for immediate showering and clothing removal.
The correct action is to direct the victims to an outdoor decontamination area. In any hazardous materials incident, the absolute first priority is removing the contaminant from the victims outside the main facility. This process stops the ongoing chemical exposure to the clients and prevents secondary contamination, which could endanger healthcare staff, other patients, and potentially force the closure of the emergency department.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the nature of the emergency.
The scenario describes an external hazardous materials (hazmat) chemical spill.
Recognizing a hazmat situation dictates that standard clinical prioritization (like immediate ABCs) shifts to prioritize containment and decontamination.
2
Determine the most immediate risk to the clients and the facility.
The clients have active pesticide on their clothing, which poses an ongoing absorption risk to them and a secondary contamination risk to the hospital.
Secondary contamination occurs when victims bring the hazardous substance into a clean environment, jeopardizing the safety of the entire emergency department.
3
Select the appropriate emergency response intervention.
The clients must undergo thorough decontamination outside the facility before any medical treatment or facility entry is permitted.
Outdoor decontamination ensures the chemical is removed, protecting both the clients from further exposure and the healthcare workers from toxic harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Hazardous Materials (Hazmat) Decontamination Protocol
Soru 2471Soru →

A nursing supervisor is observing a newly licensed nurse delegate tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a busy gastroenterology unit. Which of the following delegated tasks indicates a need for the supervisor to intervene?

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Cevap: Directing the UAP to monitor a client's respiratory depth and effort 15 minutes after the administration of an intravenous opioid.

Cevap

The task that requires intervention is directing the UAP to monitor the client's respiratory depth and effort following an intravenous opioid.
The correct answer identifies the unsafe delegation of clinical assessment. Evaluating a client's respiratory status after administering an intravenous opioid is a critical nursing assessment. The registered nurse must retain responsibility for assessing and evaluating client responses to pharmacological interventions, as it requires specialized knowledge and clinical judgment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the tasks involving the stool specimen, barrier cream, and ileostomy pouch.
These are identified as standard, routine procedures with predictable outcomes.
UAPs are legally permitted to perform basic hygiene, collect non-sterile specimens, and document routine intake and output on stable clients.
2
Evaluate the task of monitoring respiratory depth and effort post-medication.
This task is identified as requiring nursing assessment and clinical judgment.
Evaluating a client's physiological response to a medication (especially one that can cause respiratory depression) is a core nursing responsibility that falls outside the UAP scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Delegation principles and scope of practice
Soru 2472Soru →

A client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with night sweats, hemoptysis, and a recent positive stool assay for *Clostridioides difficile*. The healthcare provider suspects active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following infection control interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Place the client in a private, negative-pressure isolation room with a minimum of six air exchanges per hour.; Don a fit-tested N95 respirator, disposable gown, and gloves before entering the client's environment.; Dedicate reusable medical equipment, such as a stethoscope and thermometer, exclusively to this client's room.

Cevap

The nurse should place the client in a negative-pressure room, don an N95 respirator along with a gown and gloves, and dedicate reusable medical equipment to the client's room.
The client's clinical presentation requires a combination of Airborne Precautions (for suspected pulmonary tuberculosis) and Contact/Enteric Precautions (for C. difficile). Proper management necessitates an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (negative pressure) to prevent droplet nuclei spread. Additionally, the nurse must use an N95 respirator for airborne protection, plus a gown and gloves to prevent contact with enteric spores. Dedicating medical equipment to the room is a standard requirement of Contact Precautions to break the chain of transmission.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the required isolation precautions for each infectious agent.
Tuberculosis requires Airborne Precautions. Clostridioides difficile requires Contact/Enteric Precautions.
Pathogens have distinct modes of transmission that dictate specific infection control measures.
2
Determine appropriate room placement and personal protective equipment (PPE) for the combined precautions.
A negative-pressure room is required (Airborne), and the nurse must wear an N95 respirator (Airborne), gown, and gloves (Contact).
Simultaneous precautions require the nurse to apply the strictest combined measures to block all transmission routes.
3
Evaluate the proposed transport, hand hygiene, and delegation actions for safety and scope of practice.
Hand hygiene must be soap and water (due to C. difficile spores), the client needs a surgical mask for transport, and teaching cannot be delegated to a UAP.
Nuances in infection control (like spore resistance to alcohol) and legal scopes of practice dictate these limitations.

Anahtar Kavram

Dual Transmission-Based Precautions (Airborne and Contact/Enteric)
Soru 2473Soru →

The infection control nurse is reviewing isolation protocols for four high-acuity clients. Match each client's clinical scenario to the most appropriate and comprehensive transmission-based precaution intervention required.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

A client with localized herpes zoster (shingles) with vesicular lesions that cannot be completely contained by dressings.
A client with confirmed Neisseria meningitidis meningitis who has received 18 hours of targeted intravenous antibiotic therapy.
A client with suspected Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) requiring an aerosol-generating procedure.
A client with Clostridioides difficile colitis who requires transport to the radiology department for an urgent imaging study.

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Localized uncontainable zoster matches with Airborne/Contact in a negative-pressure room. Meningitis at 18 hours matches with maintaining Droplet Precautions. MERS matches with Airborne, Contact, and eye protection. C. difficile transport matches with clean gown, notifying the receiving department, and soap and water hand hygiene.
The correct pairings require a deep synthesis of infection control nuances. Localized herpes zoster that cannot be completely covered necessitates Airborne and Contact Precautions due to the severe aerosolization risk. Clients with Neisseria meningitidis remain contagious until a full 24 hours of antibiotics are completed, requiring continued Droplet Precautions at the 18-hour mark. MERS, particularly during aerosol-generating procedures, demands strict Airborne, Contact, and eye precautions. Finally, transporting a client with C. difficile requires preventing environmental shedding and strictly utilizing soap and water for hand hygiene, as the spores are highly resistant to alcohol-based sanitizers.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation of the client with localized herpes zoster.
The lesions cannot be contained by dressings.
Uncontainable zoster lesions pose a significant airborne transmission risk, elevating the requirement from Standard/Contact to Airborne and Contact Precautions.
2
Evaluate the treatment duration for the client with Neisseria meningitidis.
The client has received only 18 hours of antibiotics.
Droplet Precautions must be maintained until exactly 24 hours of effective therapy have been completed, meaning precautions cannot yet be discontinued.
3
Identify the transmission risks associated with MERS during an aerosol-generating procedure.
The procedure poses a high risk of aerosolizing infectious viral particles.
MERS protocols require a combination of Standard, Contact, and Airborne Precautions, along with eye protection to fully protect mucosal surfaces.
4
Determine the appropriate transport and hygiene protocol for a client with Clostridioides difficile.
Transport requires containment, notification, and specific hand hygiene.
Bacterial spores are highly resistant to alcohol-based sanitizers; environmental containment and mechanical friction with soap and water are mandatory.

Anahtar Kavram

Advanced Application of Transmission-Based Precaution Exceptions
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 2474Soru →

While organizing the morning workflow on an acute care floor, a registered nurse (RN) must assign interventions among available staff members, including a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN) and an assistive personnel (AP). Which specific client care activities fall within the safe scope of practice to delegate to the LPN/VN? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Administering a scheduled subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin.; Performing a sterile dressing change on a healing abdominal surgical incision.; Inserting a prescribed indwelling urinary catheter for a client requiring strict intake and output monitoring.

Cevap

The appropriate tasks to delegate to the LPN/VN are administering the scheduled subcutaneous injection, performing the sterile dressing change, and inserting the indwelling urinary catheter.
The RN may safely delegate tasks that involve standard, unchanging procedures with predictable outcomes. Administering subcutaneous medications, performing sterile dressing changes on healing wounds, and inserting urinary catheters are all standard clinical skills taught in practical nursing programs and do not require the advanced clinical judgment of a registered nurse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the legal principles and rules of nursing delegation.
Identify that the RN retains core responsibilities that cannot be delegated, commonly remembered by the EAT acronym (Evaluate, Assess, Teach).
Safe delegation requires matching the task to the legal scope of practice and competencies of the team member.
2
Evaluate the clinical complexity of each proposed task.
Determine that routine medication administration, sterile procedures on stable wounds, and urinary catheter insertions have predictable outcomes and involve standard steps.
Tasks delegated to an LPN/VN should not require independent, advanced nursing judgment.
3
Identify the tasks that require advanced clinical judgment.
Eliminate the comprehensive assessment, initial dietary teaching, and the evaluation of respiratory status.
These specific activities require synthesis of data, critical thinking, and the formulation of a care plan, which must remain with the RN.

Anahtar Kavram

The RN cannot delegate assessments, clinical judgments, initial teaching, or evaluation of care outcomes to an LPN/VN or AP. LPN/VNs can perform routine procedures, administer most medications, and gather data on stable clients.
Soru 2475Soru →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided hemiparesis from the bed to a wheelchair. To prevent injury and ensure a safe transfer, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence for a safe transfer is: position the wheelchair on the strong side (left), assist the client to sit at the edge of the bed, apply the gait belt, brace the weak (right) leg, assist to stand and pivot on the strong leg, and instruct the client to reach for the armrest before sitting.
A safe transfer sequence prioritizes environmental preparation on the strong side, physiological stabilization (dangling), application of safety equipment, and the use of biomechanics that maximize the client's functional abilities while actively protecting weakened extremities from buckling.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Prepare the environment by placing the wheelchair on the unaffected side.
The wheelchair is locked on the client's left side.
Ensures the transfer will occur toward the stronger side, significantly reducing the risk of a fall.
2
Position the client at the edge of the bed.
The client sits upright with feet flat on the floor.
Allows the nurse to assess for dizziness (orthostatic hypotension) and establishes an initial base of support.
3
Apply safety equipment.
The gait belt is secured around the client's waist.
Provides a safe, central handling point to control the transfer and protect the nurse's back.
4
Establish a stabilizing stance.
The nurse braces the client's right (weak) knee and foot.
Prevents the hemiparetic leg from buckling when the client attempts to bear weight.
5
Execute the transfer movement.
The client stands and pivots on the left (strong) leg.
Utilizes the client's intact strength to safely rotate the body toward the seating surface.
6
Finalize positioning before sitting.
The client reaches for the left armrest.
Provides necessary sensory feedback and upper body support before committing weight into the wheelchair.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe patient handling and transfer techniques for clients with unilateral weakness.
Soru 2476Soru →

A nurse is prioritizing care for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following client findings mandate immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: A client with heart failure who is expectorating pink, frothy sputum; A client with a recent concussion who exhibits a decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale score from 15 to 11; A client receiving an intravenous antibiotic who develops expiratory wheezing and urticaria

Cevap

The clients requiring immediate intervention are the one expectorating pink, frothy sputum; the one with a decreasing Glasgow Coma Scale score; and the one developing wheezing and urticaria.
The correct answers represent acute, life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulation (ABC) emergencies. The client expectorating pink, frothy sputum is exhibiting signs of pulmonary edema, which severely compromises breathing and oxygenation. The client with a decreasing Glasgow Coma Scale score is demonstrating acute neurological deterioration that can rapidly threaten airway patency. The client developing wheezing and urticaria during an antibiotic infusion is experiencing anaphylaxis, a critical airway and circulatory emergency. These unstable clients must be prioritized for immediate care.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Differentiate between acute, unstable conditions and chronic, expected findings among the presented clients.
The clients with pink frothy sputum, a dropping Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), and wheezing/urticaria represent acute changes. The clients with emphysema (SpO2 90%) and pancreatitis (pain) represent chronic or expected findings.
Prioritization frameworks dictate that acute and unexpected clinical changes must be addressed before chronic or expected findings.
2
Evaluate the acute findings using the Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC) framework to determine the immediate priorities.
Pulmonary edema (pink, frothy sputum) and anaphylaxis (wheezing, urticaria) are direct ABC threats. A dropping GCS indicates a severe neurological decline that independently threatens airway patency.
Conditions that acutely threaten airway patency, effective breathing, or adequate circulation are the highest clinical priorities and require immediate intervention to prevent mortality.

Anahtar Kavram

Establishing Priorities using ABCs and Acute vs. Chronic Frameworks
Soru 2477Soru →

A nurse is responding to a small paper fire in the staff break room. The fire alarm has been activated, and all personnel have been safely evacuated. The nurse retrieves a nearby fire extinguisher to contain the flames. Arrange the steps for operating the fire extinguisher in the correct priority sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for operating a fire extinguisher follows the PASS acronym: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side.
The PASS mnemonic is the universal standard protocol for operating a portable fire extinguisher safely and effectively. The correct, logical sequence requires the user to first Pull the locking pin to enable the device, then Aim the nozzle at the base (fuel) of the fire, Squeeze the handle to release the agent, and finally Sweep the nozzle from side to side to thoroughly coat the fire area.

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1
Pull the pin.
The extinguisher is unlocked and ready to use.
The tamper seal and locking pin prevent accidental discharge and must be removed first.
2
Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire.
The nozzle is directed at the fuel source.
Aiming at the flames themselves is ineffective; the extinguishing agent must coat the fuel source to remove the oxygen.
3
Squeeze the handle.
The extinguishing agent is released.
Depressing the lever activates the pressurized mechanism.
4
Sweep from side to side.
The base of the fire is completely covered with the extinguishing agent.
A sweeping motion ensures the entire area of the fire is blanketed and extinguished, preventing reignition.

Anahtar Kavram

Facility Emergency Protocols: Fire Extinguisher Operation (PASS)
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 2478Soru →

A home health nurse is establishing a plan of care for an older adult client who recently experienced a right hemisphere stroke, resulting in left-sided hemiplegia, unilateral neglect, and mild dysphagia. Which of the following safety interventions should the nurse include in the care plan? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: Place frequently used personal items and the call button on the client's right side.; Ensure the client remains seated in an upright, high-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes following meals.; Fasten a transfer belt securely around the client's waist prior to assisting them out of bed.

Cevap

The correct safety interventions to include in the care plan are placing personal items on the client's right side, maintaining a high-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes after meals, and utilizing a transfer belt before assisting the client out of bed.
The correct safety interventions directly address the client's specific neurological deficits. Placing items on the strong right side accommodates hemiplegia and unilateral neglect, preventing falls caused by leaning or overreaching. Maintaining a high-Fowler's position post-meals protects the airway of a client with dysphagia from aspiration. Using a transfer belt provides necessary stabilization for a hemiplegic client during mobility tasks.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's specific physical and cognitive deficits from the clinical scenario.
The client presents with left-sided hemiplegia, unilateral neglect, and mild dysphagia.
Safety interventions must be individualized and tailored to the client's specific functional limitations to be effective.
2
Evaluate each proposed safety intervention against the identified deficits.
Interventions must accommodate the unilateral weakness, protect the airway, and avoid placing unsafe physical demands on the affected side.
Applying standard safety measures without considering individual neurological deficits can inadvertently lead to patient injury.
3
Select the interventions that safely address the client's needs while adhering to nursing standards.
Placing items on the right side, maintaining a high-Fowler's position post-meals, and using a transfer belt are identified as safe and appropriate.
These actions directly mitigate the risks of overreaching falls, aspiration, and transfer-related injuries without violating care protocols.
4
Identify and exclude interventions that are unsafe or violate nursing scope of practice.
Delegating swallowing evaluation to a UAP, placing the wheelchair on the paralyzed side, and using restraints as a primary safety measure are excluded.
These actions either increase the physical risk of injury or violate the RN's core responsibility for clinical assessment and least-restrictive care.

Anahtar Kavram

Accident, Error, and Injury Prevention in Stroke Rehabilitation
Soru 2479Soru →

A client with progressing multiple sclerosis is transitioning to a home health care program. The client's spouse reports that the client frequently drops utensils due to hand tremors and struggles with buttoning clothes, though chewing and swallowing remain intact. Which interdisciplinary collaboration or action should the home health nurse prioritize to address these specific challenges?

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Cevap: Requesting a consultation with an occupational therapist to recommend adaptive devices for feeding and dressing

Cevap

The nurse should prioritize requesting a consultation with an occupational therapist to recommend adaptive devices for feeding and dressing.
Occupational therapists specialize in promoting independence in activities of daily living (ADLs), such as eating, bathing, and dressing. Because the client is experiencing fine motor deficits (tremors) that interfere with ADLs, the occupational therapist is the exact interdisciplinary team member trained to evaluate these limitations and prescribe adaptive equipment (e.g., weighted utensils, button hooks) to help the client maintain autonomy.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's specific clinical presentation and deficits.
The client has intact chewing and swallowing but exhibits fine motor deficits (hand tremors) that specifically impair activities of daily living (ADLs), such as feeding and dressing.
Accurately identifying the functional deficit is required to determine the correct allied health specialty.
2
Differentiate between the scopes of practice for various interdisciplinary team members.
Occupational therapists handle fine motor skills and ADLs; speech-language pathologists handle swallowing and speech; physical therapists handle gross motor skills and mobility.
Ensuring the referral targets the professional uniquely qualified to address the specific deficit prevents delays in care.
3
Select the intervention that best promotes optimal patient outcomes.
Collaborating with an occupational therapist is the correct action because they can provide targeted strategies and adaptive equipment (like weighted utensils or button hooks) to maximize the client's independence.
Rehabilitation goals prioritize maintaining autonomy before resorting to total assistance.

Anahtar Kavram

Collaboration with Interdisciplinary Team (Scope of Practice)
Soru 2480Soru →

A quality assurance nurse is reviewing incident reports related to infection control practices on a medical-surgical unit. Which documented event represents a breach in transmission-based precaution protocols?

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Cevap: A client with confirmed pulmonary tuberculosis wearing an N95 respirator during transport to the radiology department.

Cevap

A client with confirmed pulmonary tuberculosis wearing an N95 respirator during transport represents a breach in transmission-based precaution protocols.
The documented event involving the client with tuberculosis represents a breach. Clients on airborne precautions, such as those with active pulmonary tuberculosis, should wear a standard surgical mask—not an N95 respirator—when transported outside their negative-pressure room. A standard surgical mask is sufficient to contain the client's exhaled respiratory droplets. N95 respirators are required for healthcare personnel entering the room to protect them from inhaling droplet nuclei, but they are not appropriate or necessary for the client to wear.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the transmission route for each pathogen mentioned in the options.
Tuberculosis (Airborne), Pertussis (Droplet), C. difficile (Contact/Enteric), and VRE (Contact).
Identifying the correct precaution tier is necessary to evaluate the appropriateness of the documented interventions.
2
Evaluate the specific intervention for the client with tuberculosis.
The client is wearing an N95 respirator during transport, which is incorrect. The client should wear a standard surgical mask.
An N95 respirator is designed to filter inhaled air for healthcare workers and can impede a compromised client's breathing. A surgical mask effectively traps the client's exhaled droplets and is the standard for patient source control during transport.
3
Verify the interventions in the remaining options to confirm they follow correct protocols.
A surgical mask for pertussis, soap and water for C. difficile, and dedicated equipment for VRE are all correct infection control practices.
Confirming that the other options represent proper protocols isolates the single breach.

Anahtar Kavram

Appropriate PPE selection for source control during the transport of clients on airborne precautions.
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