Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 2621Soru →

A client is recovering on the surgical unit 48 hours after a right below-the-knee amputation. During the morning assessment, the client reports a pain level of 6 on a 0-to-10 scale in the absent right foot. The residual limb exhibits mild, non-pitting edema. Which of the following positioning interventions is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

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Cevap: Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes every 3 to 4 hours.

Cevap

The most appropriate positioning intervention is to assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes every 3 to 4 hours.
The correct action is to assist the client into a prone position several times a day. This position is vital for clients with lower extremity amputations because it extends the hip joint, preventing the flexor muscles from shortening. Preventing hip flexion contractures is a primary nursing goal, as contractures can make it impossible for the client to bear weight or use a prosthetic device in the future.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's post-operative time frame and procedure.
The client is 48 hours post-operative following a below-the-knee amputation.
The time since surgery dictates the appropriate positioning interventions, as protocols change after the first 24 hours.
2
Determine the primary risk factor related to positioning for this specific client.
The primary risk is the development of hip and knee flexion contractures.
Flexion contractures can prevent the successful fitting and use of a prosthetic limb, permanently impairing mobility.
3
Evaluate the safety of elevating the edematous limb at this stage of recovery.
Elevation on a pillow is unsafe at 48 hours, as the risk of hip flexion contracture outweighs the benefit of edema reduction.
While elevation is used in the first 24 hours to minimize swelling, continuing this practice causes the flexor muscles to shorten.
4
Select the positioning intervention that actively prevents the identified risk.
Prone positioning is selected.
The prone position forces the hip into extension, stretching the flexor muscles and effectively preventing contracture formation.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of flexion contractures following lower extremity amputation
Soru 2622Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) antibiotic piggyback to a client receiving a compatible continuous primary infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Place the following steps for setting up the secondary infusion in the correct chronological order.

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence is to close the secondary roller clamp, spike and prime the secondary line, cleanse the primary access port, connect the lines, and hang the primary bag lower than the secondary bag.
Following the proper chronological sequence for an IV piggyback setup ensures patient safety by preventing fluid loss, avoiding air embolisms, maintaining strict asepsis, and utilizing gravity correctly for the secondary infusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Close the roller clamp on the secondary IV tubing.
The tubing is sealed.
Prevents medication from freely running out of the tubing when the bag is spiked.
2
Spike the secondary medication bag and prime the tubing.
The line is filled with fluid and devoid of air.
Removes atmospheric air from the line to prevent an air embolism.
3
Scrub the uppermost access port of the primary tubing with an antiseptic swab.
The access port is disinfected.
Maintains strict aseptic technique to prevent catheter-related bloodstream infections.
4
Connect the primed secondary IV tubing to the cleansed primary line port.
The secondary line is integrated into the primary infusion system.
Establishes a continuous, secure pathway for the medication to reach the patient.
5
Hang the primary IV fluid bag lower than the secondary medication bag.
The secondary bag has greater hydrostatic pressure.
Utilizes gravity so the pump draws fluid from the highest bag (the medication) until it is empty.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Piggyback (IVPB) Setup Sequence
Soru 2623Soru →

A client weighing 78 kg78\text{ kg} is admitted to the progressive care unit with a hypertensive crisis. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside at a rate of 3 mcg/kg/min3\text{ mcg/kg/min}. The medication is supplied as sodium nitroprusside 50 mg50\text{ mg} mixed in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). At what rate should the nurse set the infusion pump in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? Round your answer to the nearest tenth.

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Cevap: 70.2

Cevap

70.2
To determine the correct infusion pump rate, the nurse must first calculate the total hourly dose based on the client's weight (78 kg×3 mcg/kg/min×60 min/hr=14,040 mcg/hr78\text{ kg} \times 3\text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 14,040\text{ mcg/hr}). Next, this dose must be converted to match the supplied medication unit (14,040 mcg=14.04 mg14,040\text{ mcg} = 14.04\text{ mg}). Finally, dividing the hourly dose by the concentration of the IV solution (14.04 mg/hr÷0.2 mg/mL14.04\text{ mg/hr} \div 0.2\text{ mg/mL}) yields exactly 70.2 mL/hr70.2\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the required dose in micrograms per minute.
234 mcg/min234\text{ mcg/min}
The prescription is weight-based, so the client's total body weight must be multiplied by the ordered rate of 3 mcg/kg/min3\text{ mcg/kg/min}.
2
Convert the minute dose to an hourly dose.
14,040 mcg/hr14,040\text{ mcg/hr}
Intravenous infusion pumps are programmed in milliliters per hour, so the total medication dose must be determined on an hourly basis.
3
Convert the hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams.
14.04 mg/hr14.04\text{ mg/hr}
The supplied medication is measured in milligrams, so units must match the supply before calculating the final volume.
4
Calculate the concentration of the supplied intravenous medication.
0.2 mg/mL0.2\text{ mg/mL}
Dividing the total drug mass (50 mg50\text{ mg}) by the total fluid volume (250 mL250\text{ mL}) yields the amount of active drug in each milliliter of solution.
5
Calculate the final pump infusion rate in mL/hr.
70.2 mL/hr70.2\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose (14.04 mg/hr14.04\text{ mg/hr}) by the drug concentration (0.2 mg/mL0.2\text{ mg/mL}) determines the exact fluid volume needed per hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based continuous intravenous medication calculations
Soru 2624Soru →

A community health nurse is conducting a home visit for an older adult client receiving hospice care for terminal prostate cancer. The client is currently unresponsive and has been sleeping for the past 18 hours. The client's partner is visibly anxious and states, 'He never used to sleep this much. I am worried his dementia is suddenly progressing, or maybe this is just what happens when people get old.' Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

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Cevap: It is understandable to be concerned. This increased sleepiness is an expected part of the body slowing down from the cancer, rather than just aging or dementia.

Cevap

The most appropriate response is to validate the partner's concerns and educate them that increased sleepiness is an expected part of the body slowing down from the terminal illness.
The correct response directly addresses the partner's concern, validates their feelings, and provides accurate education about the dying process. In the terminal phase of an illness, physiological slowing of the body leads to increased time spent sleeping and decreased responsiveness. Providing this context helps alleviate anxiety and corrects the misconception that the changes are due to dementia or normal aging.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is in hospice care for a terminal illness and is exhibiting increased sleepiness and unresponsiveness.
Understanding the clinical context (active dying phase) is necessary to determine the expected physiological changes.
2
Evaluate the partner's statement and emotional state.
The partner is anxious and misattributing the symptoms to worsening dementia or normal aging.
Identifying the partner's knowledge deficit and emotional distress guides the therapeutic response.
3
Assess the provided options against principles of therapeutic communication, palliative care, and safe nursing practice.
The option validating the concern and educating about the dying process is the only one that uses therapeutic communication and provides accurate clinical information.
Eliminating non-therapeutic responses, inaccurate medical information, and unsafe delegation leads to the correct nursing action.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication and Education in End of Life Care
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 2625Soru →

A client with thyroid cancer is admitted to a private hospital room and receives an oral therapeutic dose of unsealed radioactive iodine (I-131). The nurse is reviewing the safety and environmental protocols for the shift. Which action by the nurse demonstrates the correct management of hazardous materials associated with this therapy?

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Cevap: Directing the client to use the private toilet and flush it at least twice with the lid closed after each voiding

Cevap

The correct action is to direct the client to use the private toilet and flush it at least twice with the lid closed after each voiding.
The correct answer demonstrates the safest method for disposing of highly radioactive urine. Because unsealed radioactive iodine (I-131) is primarily excreted through the kidneys, the client's urine is heavily contaminated. Instructing the client to use a private toilet and flush multiple times with the lid closed safely dilutes the isotope into the plumbing system while preventing the aerosolization of radioactive particles into the room environment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the type of hazardous material involved in the clinical scenario.
The client received unsealed radioactive iodine (I-131), meaning all bodily fluids (urine, saliva, sweat, feces) emit radiation and pose an environmental hazard.
Understanding the source and mechanism of contamination is required to select the correct handling protocols.
2
Evaluate the safest method for disposing of the client's radioactive excreta.
Because I-131 is primarily excreted by the kidneys, the urine is highly radioactive. The client should use a private toilet instead of a commode to minimize staff contact.
Flushing the toilet multiple times safely dilutes the radioactive isotope into the sewage system, and keeping the lid closed prevents the aerosolization of radioactive particles.
3
Analyze the distractors regarding waste segregation and task delegation.
Standard biological hazard processing (red bags, central laundry) does not neutralize radiation. Furthermore, UAPs cannot safely handle radioactive spills or excreta.
Radioactive items must remain in the client's room in specialized, lead-shielded or clearly marked containers until a radiation safety officer surveys and clears them.

Anahtar Kavram

Radiation Safety Protocols for Unsealed Isotopes
Soru 2626Soru →

A nurse discovers that a urinary catheter drainage bag has detached from a client receiving intravesical Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) therapy for bladder cancer. The fluid containing the live attenuated mycobacteria is actively leaking onto the floor. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence to safely manage this hazardous biological spill.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for managing a BCG biological spill is to secure the area, don appropriate PPE including an N95 respirator, contain the active leak, cover the spill with absorbent materials, and apply a tuberculocidal disinfectant for the required contact time.
When managing a hazardous biological spill involving live mycobacteria (BCG), the nurse must prioritize safety systematically. Securing the area prevents unintended exposures. Donning PPE, specifically including an N95 respirator, protects the nurse from aerosolized bacteria. Containing the active source of the leak prevents the spill from worsening. Applying absorbent materials before the disinfectant prevents splashing, and allowing the proper contact time ensures the tuberculocidal agent destroys the pathogens before final cleanup.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Secure the immediate area and restrict access to the room to prevent tracking of the infectious fluid.
The risk of exposure to patients, visitors, and other staff is minimized.
Safety protocols require isolating the hazard immediately to prevent tracking or accidental contact with bloodborne or infectious pathogens.
2
Don personal protective equipment (PPE), including an N95 respirator, gown, face shield, and utility gloves.
The nurse is fully protected from chemical and biological hazards, including aerosolized mycobacteria.
BCG contains live Mycobacterium bovis. Occupational safety guidelines require respiratory protection in addition to contact and eye protection when cleaning a spill due to aerosolization risks.
3
Clamp the urinary catheter and reattach or replace the drainage bag to stop the active leak.
The active source of the biohazard leak is safely contained.
The ongoing leak must be stopped before attempting to clean the surrounding spill to prevent continuous environmental contamination.
4
Cover the spilled fluid with absorbent paper towels to prevent splashing and minimize aerosolization.
The biological spill is contained and prepared for disinfection.
Pouring liquids directly onto a biological spill can cause splashing and aerosolization of pathogens; covering it first with absorbent material mitigates this risk.
5
Apply an EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant over the towels and wait the required contact time.
Pathogens are effectively destroyed, and the area is safe for normal use.
Disinfectants require a specific wet dwell time to ensure complete eradication of the mycobacteria before physical removal.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of intravesical Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) spills requires specialized biohazard protocols, including airborne respiratory protection (N95) and tuberculocidal disinfectants, due to the aerosolization risk of the live attenuated mycobacterium.
Soru 2627Soru →

A nurse is preparing to provide oral hygiene to an unconscious client. Arrange the following steps of the procedure in the chronological order the nurse should perform them to ensure client safety.

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence prioritizes assessment first, followed by safe positioning to prevent aspiration, preparation of the immediate environment, the cleaning procedure, and finally suctioning to clear the airway.
The nursing process dictates that assessment comes first to identify risks, such as the absence of a gag reflex. Because aspiration is the greatest risk during oral care for an unconscious client, placing the client in a side-lying position is the immediate safety priority before introducing any fluids. Once the airway is protected by gravity, the nurse prepares the area with a towel and basin, performs the cleaning, and finally suctions the mouth to ensure all fluids and loosened secretions are safely removed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's respiratory status and presence of a gag reflex.
Determines the client's risk for aspiration.
The nursing process always begins with assessment to ensure individualized and safe care before implementing any interventions.
2
Place the client in a side-lying position with the face turned slightly downward.
Allows gravity to facilitate the drainage of oral secretions out of the mouth.
Unconscious clients cannot swallow effectively. This position is the primary intervention to prevent choking and aspiration of fluids.
3
Place a protective towel and an emesis basin under the client's chin.
Protects the client's skin, gown, and bed linens.
Setting up the environment after safe positioning ensures that any immediate drainage is caught and hygiene is maintained.
4
Clean the teeth, gums, and inner cheeks using a moistened soft foam swab.
Removes plaque, crusts, and debris from the oral cavity.
Promotes oral hygiene, prevents infection, and maintains the integrity of the oral mucosa.
5
Suction the oral cavity to remove any remaining fluids and loosened secretions.
Clears the airway and oral cavity of excess moisture.
Ensures that the client does not aspirate any residual fluids introduced during the cleaning process.

Anahtar Kavram

Oral Care for the Unconscious Client
Soru 2628Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. The client suddenly begins coughing vigorously, becomes tachypneic, and their oxygen saturation drops to 88% on room air. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct order of priority to mitigate the risk of further respiratory compromise.

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Cevap

The correct priority sequence is to stop the feeding, position the client, suction the airway, administer oxygen, assess vital signs, and finally notify the healthcare provider.
When a client aspirates enteral feeding, the nurse must rapidly apply the principles of Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABC) to reduce the risk of severe complications such as hypoxic respiratory failure and aspiration pneumonia. The first action must always be to eliminate the cause by stopping the feeding pump. Next, the airway must be protected via positioning and cleared via suctioning. Once the airway is patent, breathing is supported with supplemental oxygen. Only after the client is stabilized should the nurse complete a comprehensive assessment and communicate the findings to the healthcare provider.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the enteral feeding pump.
Halts the infusion of formula.
Prevents additional fluid from entering the compromised airway, directly reducing the risk of worsening aspiration.
2
Reposition the client.
Protects the airway using gravity.
High-Fowler's or side-lying positioning prevents pooling of secretions and facilitates the clearing of aspirated material.
3
Suction the airway.
Removes formula and pulmonary secretions.
Clears the mechanical obstruction from the oropharynx to restore breathing and gas exchange.
4
Administer oxygen.
Increases circulating oxygen levels.
Addresses the acute desaturation (88%) now that the airway has been secured and cleared.
5
Assess the client.
Evaluates the extent of physiological damage.
Auscultating breath sounds and taking vital signs provides crucial data on the client's current status.
6
Notify the provider.
Communicates the critical change in condition.
Allows the provider to prescribe follow-up interventions, such as a chest x-ray to assess for aspiration pneumonia.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of care for enteral feeding complications using the Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC) framework.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2629Soru →

A nurse on an acute psychiatric unit is reviewing the protocol for managing clients who exhibit escalating, aggressive behavior. According to the principle of least restrictive intervention, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence from least restrictive to most restrictive.

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Cevap

The correct sequence from least to most restrictive is: verbally engaging the client, modifying the environment, offering voluntary oral medication, administering emergency intramuscular medication, and finally utilizing a locked seclusion room.
The correct sequence adheres to the legal and ethical mandate to use the least restrictive measures first. The hierarchy strictly progresses from independent communication (verbal), to spatial management (environment), to collaborative medical treatment (oral meds), to non-collaborative medical treatment (IM meds), and finally to total restriction of movement (seclusion).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the foundational principle of behavioral crisis management.
The nurse must always start with the least restrictive and least invasive interventions before progressing to more restrictive measures.
This approach protects the client's autonomy, dignity, and legal rights while maintaining a safe therapeutic milieu.
2
Evaluate the restrictiveness of the non-pharmacological interventions.
Verbal engagement is the least restrictive, followed by environmental modifications (moving to a quiet area).
Verbal techniques rely completely on client cooperation without limiting movement. Environmental changes begin to limit the client's spatial freedom slightly but do not alter their physiology.
3
Evaluate the restrictiveness of the pharmacological and physical interventions.
Voluntary oral medication is less restrictive than emergency intramuscular medication, and physical seclusion is the most restrictive overall.
Voluntary medications maintain consent. Chemical restraints (IM) override physical autonomy. Seclusion completely eliminates freedom of movement and isolates the client, serving only as the absolute last resort.

Anahtar Kavram

The hierarchy of least restrictive behavioral interventions
Soru 2630Soru →

A nurse is evaluating the electronic fetal monitor tracing of a client at 41 weeks gestation who is undergoing an induction of labor with an intravenous oxytocin infusion. The tracing reveals a baseline fetal heart rate of 165 bpm with minimal variability. Over the past 20 minutes, recurrent decelerations are observed; these decelerations begin after the peak of the contraction and slowly return to baseline 30 seconds after the contraction ends. The uterine activity panel shows 7 contractions in a 10-minute window, lasting 80 to 90 seconds each, with a resting tone of 25 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Discontinue the intravenous oxytocin infusion immediately.; Administer a rapid intravenous bolus of isotonic crystalloid solution.; Prepare to administer a prescribed dose of subcutaneous terbutaline.

Cevap

The correct actions are to discontinue the intravenous oxytocin infusion immediately, administer a rapid intravenous bolus of isotonic crystalloid solution, and prepare to administer a prescribed dose of subcutaneous terbutaline.
The client is experiencing uterine tachysystole (excessive contractions) leading to uteroplacental insufficiency, evidenced by fetal tachycardia, minimal variability, and late decelerations. Immediate intrauterine resuscitation is required. Discontinuing the oxytocin removes the stimulus causing the tachysystole. Administering an isotonic fluid bolus expands maternal intravascular volume to maximize placental perfusion. Preparing terbutaline (a tocolytic) is appropriate to relax the uterine muscle if stopping oxytocin is insufficient.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the fetal heart rate baseline and variability.
The baseline is 165 bpm (fetal tachycardia) with minimal variability.
Normal baseline is 110-160 bpm with moderate variability. These abnormal findings indicate potential fetal compromise or hypoxia.
2
Identify the type of decelerations present on the tracing.
The decelerations begin after the peak of the contraction and return to baseline slowly, defining them as late decelerations.
Late decelerations are a hallmark sign of uteroplacental insufficiency and require immediate intervention.
3
Evaluate the uterine activity panel.
The presence of 7 contractions in a 10-minute window, lasting up to 90 seconds each with an elevated resting tone of 25 mm Hg.
This pattern constitutes uterine tachysystole (defined as more than 5 contractions in 10 minutes), which impairs blood flow to the placenta.
4
Select priority interventions for intrauterine resuscitation.
The appropriate actions are stopping the oxytocin, administering an IV fluid bolus, and preparing a tocolytic like terbutaline.
These specific actions directly reduce uterine activity, increase maternal blood volume, and improve placental perfusion, addressing the root cause of the fetal distress.

Anahtar Kavram

Intrauterine Resuscitation for Uterine Tachysystole
Soru 2631Soru →

A pediatric nurse is assessing an 8-month-old infant during a routine well-child visit. Which of the following assessment findings is the highest priority for the nurse to report to the pediatric healthcare provider?

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Cevap: The infant exhibits a persistent head lag when pulled from a supine to a sitting position.

Cevap

The highest priority finding to report is the infant exhibiting a persistent head lag when pulled from a supine to a sitting position.
By 4 to 6 months of age, an infant should have developed sufficient cervical and trunk muscle tone to maintain their head in alignment with their torso when pulled from a supine to a sitting position. The presence of a persistent head lag at 8 months is a significant developmental red flag that can indicate a severe neuromotor disorder, such as cerebral palsy, or other developmental delays. This requires prompt reporting and further neurological evaluation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the expected developmental milestones for an 8-month-old infant.
At 8 months, infants typically exhibit stranger anxiety, use a raking grasp for small objects, and babble nonspecific consonant-vowel sounds.
Establishing the baseline of normal development is necessary to differentiate expected age-appropriate behaviors from potential delays.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against the expected milestones and identify any developmental red flags.
Crying around strangers, raking small objects, and nonspecific babbling are all normal. However, a head lag should resolve by 4 to 6 months of age.
Comparing findings allows the nurse to identify the single finding that falls outside the normal developmental window and indicates a problem.
3
Determine the clinical significance of a persistent head lag at 8 months.
Its persistence at 8 months indicates a potential neuromotor deficit (such as cerebral palsy), making it the highest priority to report.
Recognizing a significant developmental red flag ensures that appropriate early interventions and referrals are initiated.

Anahtar Kavram

Pediatric Developmental Milestones and Red Flags
Soru 2632Soru →

During morning rounds, the nurse assesses an older adult client who underwent a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) the previous day. The client demonstrates acute confusion and requires total assistance with hygiene and mobility. Which interventions are appropriate for the nurse to implement? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain an abduction wedge between the client's lower extremities when turning the client in bed.; Utilize a fracture bedpan for elimination while instructing the client to use an overhead trapeze to lift their pelvis.; Reorient the client frequently and activate a bed alarm to promote safety during confused episodes.

Cevap

The appropriate interventions are maintaining an abduction wedge between the lower extremities, utilizing a fracture bedpan with an overhead trapeze, and reorienting the client frequently while using a bed alarm.
Proper care integrates posterior hip precautions (abduction wedges, fracture bedpans) with appropriate safety measures for delirium (reorientation, alarms) while adhering to strict delegation guidelines.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's surgical history to determine positioning constraints.
The client had a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, which requires avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees and preventing internal rotation and adduction.
Identifying the specific surgical approach dictates safe basic care and mobility limitations.
2
Evaluate the proposed positioning and hygiene interventions against the surgical precautions.
Using an abduction wedge prevents adduction. Using a fracture bedpan with a trapeze prevents excessive hip flexion. Conversely, sitting at a 90-degree angle for meals violates the hip flexion restriction.
Interventions must promote comfort while adhering strictly to post-operative safety guidelines.
3
Assess the delegation, cognitive, and safety aspects of the remaining options.
Skin evaluation cannot be delegated to a UAP. Sudden confusion indicates a pathological issue (delirium), not normal aging. Bed alarms are a safe, least-restrictive alternative to physical restraints.
Registered nurses must retain assessment responsibilities, investigate acute cognitive changes, and prioritize restraint-free safety measures.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care and comfort for post-operative total hip arthroplasty, encompassing joint precautions, safe delegation, and management of acute delirium.
Soru 2633Soru →

A registered nurse is preparing to initiate a continuous intravenous (IV) regular human insulin infusion for a client admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Review baseline laboratory values, prepare the insulin mixture, prime the tubing and discard the waste volume to saturate binding sites, connect to the proximal injection port, start the electronic infusion pump, and evaluate the blood glucose level in 1 hour.
The proper sequence for initiating an intravenous insulin infusion heavily prioritizes client safety and advanced pharmacological principles. Assessment (verifying blood glucose and potassium) must occur first to ensure the intervention will not cause harm, such as severe hypokalemia. Next, preparation and specialized priming are required. Priming the tubing with a waste volume is a critical pharmacological step because insulin adsorbs to PVC plastic; saturating the tubing ensures the client receives the actual ordered dose. Finally, connecting the line to a proximal port minimizes dead space, allowing the pump-controlled infusion to act quickly, followed by strict hourly reassessment to guide titration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Review the client's most recent serum potassium and blood glucose levels.
The nurse confirms the need for insulin therapy and verifies that the serum potassium is at a safe level to proceed.
Assessment must precede implementation. Insulin causes intracellular shifts of potassium; administering it to a hypokalemic client can induce lethal cardiac dysrhythmias.
2
Prepare the prescribed concentration of regular human insulin in 0.9% sodium chloride.
The intravenous insulin solution is properly mixed and ready for administration.
Once safety parameters are confirmed, the nurse prepares the specific medication. Regular insulin is the standard formulation approved for continuous intravenous use.
3
Prime the IV administration set, allowing 20 to 50 mL of the insulin solution to flow through and be discarded.
The polyvinyl chloride (PVC) binding sites within the inner lumen of the tubing are saturated with insulin.
Insulin strongly adsorbs to standard plastic IV tubing. Discarding this initial volume ensures the fluid that ultimately reaches the client contains the correct, prescribed concentration of insulin rather than a diluted dose.
4
Connect the IV tubing to the injection port closest to the client's venous access site.
The IV tubing is securely attached to the most proximal port on the client's access line.
High-alert continuously titrated medications must be connected as close to the client as possible to minimize dead space and ensure rapid physiological response to rate changes.
5
Begin the continuous infusion via an electronic infusion pump at the prescribed weight-based rate.
The client begins receiving the insulin at a strictly controlled and precise rate.
An electronic infusion pump is mandatory for continuous insulin administration to prevent accidental rapid boluses and ensure accurate metabolic management.
6
Evaluate the client's capillary blood glucose level 1 hour after initiation.
The nurse assesses the client's physiological response to the initial hour of insulin therapy.
Frequent monitoring (typically hourly) is critical to evaluate the therapeutic efficacy of the infusion and to promptly titrate the rate to prevent dangerous hypoglycemia.

Anahtar Kavram

Initiating a continuous IV insulin infusion requires a baseline assessment of serum potassium, specialized priming of the IV tubing with 20 to 50 mL of the solution to saturate plastic PVC binding sites, and connection to a proximal port to ensure accurate and safe drug delivery.
Soru 2634Soru →

A nurse in the intensive care unit is managing a critically ill client diagnosed with septic shock. The client is currently supported by a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine via a single peripheral catheter. Recent arterial blood gas results reveal a pH of 7.15 and an HCO3−HCO_3^- of 14 mEq/L (14 mmol/L). The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate IV bolus of sodium bicarbonate. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate a separate peripheral intravenous access site to deliver the alkaline solution without interrupting the vasopressor support.

Cevap

Initiate a separate peripheral intravenous access site to deliver the alkaline solution without interrupting the vasopressor support.
Norepinephrine is a critical, life-sustaining vasopressor with a very short half-life. It must be infused continuously; pausing it can lead to immediate and severe hemodynamic collapse. Furthermore, norepinephrine is chemically incompatible with alkaline solutions such as sodium bicarbonate, which rapidly deactivate catecholamines. Therefore, the safest and most appropriate action is to establish a new, separate intravenous line to administer the sodium bicarbonate without interrupting the vasopressor.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical status and ongoing therapies.
The client is experiencing septic shock and severe metabolic acidosis, relying on a continuous norepinephrine infusion to maintain perfusion.
Recognizing the critical nature of the vasopressor establishes that the infusion cannot be safely interrupted.
2
Evaluate the physical and chemical compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Sodium bicarbonate is a strongly alkaline solution that is chemically incompatible with catecholamines like norepinephrine.
Administering incompatible medications through the same line risks drug degradation, precipitation, or loss of therapeutic effect.
3
Determine the safest administration strategy based on priorities.
A new, dedicated IV line must be inserted.
This intervention allows for the simultaneous administration of the urgently needed buffer (sodium bicarbonate) and uninterrupted hemodynamic support (norepinephrine).

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Administration of Incompatible High-Alert Intravenous Medications
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2635Soru →

A critically ill client weighing 154 lbs154\text{ lbs} is prescribed a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of milrinone at 0.55 mcg/kg/min0.55\text{ mcg/kg/min} for the management of severe heart failure. The pharmacy supplies a premixed IV bag containing 20 mg20\text{ mg} of milrinone in 100 mL100\text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5WD_5W). The client's current heart rate is 118 beats/min118\text{ beats/min} and blood pressure is 96/58 mmHg96/58\text{ mmHg}. What should the nurse set the infusion pump rate to in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? Record your answer to the nearest tenth.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 11.6

Cevap

11.6
To determine the correct IV pump rate, a multi-step calculation is required. First, convert the weight to kilograms: 154 lbs÷2.2=70 kg154\text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 70\text{ kg}. Next, find the minute dose: 70 kg×0.55 mcg/kg/min=38.5 mcg/min70\text{ kg} \times 0.55\text{ mcg/kg/min} = 38.5\text{ mcg/min}. Convert this to an hourly dose: 38.5 mcg/min×60 min/hr=2310 mcg/hr38.5\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 2310\text{ mcg/hr}. Then, determine the concentration of the IV bag: 20 mg20\text{ mg} is equal to 20,000 mcg20,000\text{ mcg}. Calculate the concentration: 20,000 mcg÷100 mL=200 mcg/mL20,000\text{ mcg} \div 100\text{ mL} = 200\text{ mcg/mL}. Finally, divide the required hourly dose by the concentration to find the volume: 2310 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=11.55 mL/hr2310\text{ mcg/hr} \div 200\text{ mcg/mL} = 11.55\text{ mL/hr}. Rounding to the nearest tenth gives 11.6 mL/hr11.6\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
154 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=70 kg154\text{ lbs} \div 2.2\text{ lbs/kg} = 70\text{ kg}
The medication is prescribed in mcg/kg/min\text{mcg/kg/min}, requiring the weight to be in kilograms.
2
Calculate the required dose in mcg/min\text{mcg/min}.
70 kg×0.55 mcg/kg/min=38.5 mcg/min70\text{ kg} \times 0.55\text{ mcg/kg/min} = 38.5\text{ mcg/min}
This determines the exact amount of medication the client should receive each minute based on their body weight.
3
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
38.5 mcg/min×60 min/hr=2310 mcg/hr38.5\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 2310\text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in hours (mL/hr\text{mL/hr}), so the hourly medication requirement must be calculated.
4
Determine the concentration of the supplied medication in mcg/mL\text{mcg/mL}.
20 mg=20,000 mcg20\text{ mg} = 20,000\text{ mcg}. Then, 20,000 mcg÷100 mL=200 mcg/mL20,000\text{ mcg} \div 100\text{ mL} = 200\text{ mcg/mL}.
The prescribed dose is in micrograms, but the supplied medication is in milligrams. Converting to a common unit allows for accurate volume calculation.
5
Calculate the infusion pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} and round to the nearest tenth.
2310 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=11.55 mL/hr2310\text{ mcg/hr} \div 200\text{ mcg/mL} = 11.55\text{ mL/hr}. Rounded to the nearest tenth: 11.6 mL/hr11.6\text{ mL/hr}.
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the exact fluid volume required per hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based continuous intravenous infusion dosage calculation
Soru 2636Soru →

A home health nurse is visiting an older adult client who was recently prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. During the assessment, the client states, "I drink about half a bottle of whiskey every evening; it is the only way I can sleep since my spouse passed away." Which action should the nurse take first?

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Cevap: Contact the healthcare provider to report the alcohol intake and discuss a medically supervised withdrawal strategy.

Cevap

The correct action is to contact the healthcare provider to coordinate a medically supervised withdrawal plan, as the client is at risk for both severe bleeding and fatal alcohol withdrawal if they stop abruptly.
The client is exhibiting high-risk behavior by consuming large amounts of alcohol while on warfarin therapy, which poses a severe risk for hemorrhage. However, the reported quantity (a half bottle of whiskey daily) strongly indicates physiological dependence. Advising the client to stop drinking abruptly is dangerous and can precipitate life-threatening alcohol withdrawal syndrome, including seizures and delirium tremens. The priority action is to collaborate with the healthcare provider to initiate a safe, medically supervised detoxification plan that manages both the withdrawal risk and the client's coagulation status.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's medication profile and social history.
The client takes warfarin, an anticoagulant, and consumes a half bottle of whiskey daily to cope with grief.
To identify potential drug-alcohol interactions and establish the extent of the high-risk behavior.
2
Evaluate the physiological risks associated with the client's current behaviors.
Heavy alcohol use significantly increases the risk of hemorrhage with warfarin. However, the high daily intake also indicates severe physiological dependence.
To prioritize the most life-threatening conditions according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
3
Determine the safest intervention for a client with alcohol dependence.
Abrupt cessation of alcohol can precipitate life-threatening withdrawal (delirium tremens). Medical supervision is required to manage both the withdrawal risk and the coagulation status.
To ensure client safety and prevent iatrogenic harm from premature or unsafe advice.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of safety in high-risk substance use and prevention of acute withdrawal syndromes.
Soru 2637Soru →

A healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer's solution to infuse intravenously over 8 hours. The manual intravenous (IV) administration set delivers 15 drops per milliliter (gtt/mL). Which of the following represents the correct drip rate for this infusion? (Round the final answer to the nearest whole number).

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Cevap: 31 gtt/min

Cevap

31 gtt/min
To calculate the correct manual IV drip rate, use the formula: Volume×Drop FactorTime in minutes\frac{\text{Volume} \times \text{Drop Factor}}{\text{Time in minutes}}. First, convert the 8-hour infusion time to 480 minutes. Next, calculate: 1000 mL×15 gtt/mL480 minutes=31.25\frac{1000 \text{ mL} \times 15 \text{ gtt/mL}}{480 \text{ minutes}} = 31.25. Because partial drops cannot be administered manually, round 31.2531.25 to the nearest whole number, resulting in 3131 gtt/min.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine the total volume to be infused and convert the prescribed infusion time from hours into minutes.
Total Volume = 1,0001,000 mL. Total Time = 8×60=4808 \times 60 = 480 minutes.
The standard IV manual drip rate formula requires the time variable to be expressed in minutes.
2
Apply the standard IV drip rate formula: Total Volume (mL)×Drop Factor (gtt/mL)Total Time (minutes)\frac{\text{Total Volume (mL)} \times \text{Drop Factor (gtt/mL)}}{\text{Total Time (minutes)}}.
1000×15480\frac{1000 \times 15}{480}
This formula calculates the exact number of drops that must fall per minute to deliver the total fluid volume over the prescribed duration.
3
Perform the calculation and round the result to the nearest whole number.
15000480=31.25\frac{15000}{480} = 31.25. Rounded to the nearest whole number is 3131 gtt/min.
Manual IV drip rates can only be administered as whole drops.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous (IV) manual flow rate calculation
Soru 2638Soru →

A client voluntarily admitted to the behavioral health unit becomes visibly upset after a phone call, throws a plastic cup against the wall, and begins shouting angrily at the nursing staff. To maintain a therapeutic environment and ensure safety, which of the following is the most appropriate initial action by the nurse?

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Cevap: Approach the client from a slight angle while maintaining a relaxed posture and speaking in a calm, low voice.

Cevap

The nurse should approach the client from a slight angle, maintain a relaxed posture, and speak in a calm, low voice to initiate verbal de-escalation.
The primary goal when a client begins to escalate in an inpatient psychiatric setting is to ensure safety while utilizing the least restrictive measures. Non-threatening body language (such as standing at an angle rather than confronting face-to-face) combined with a calm, low-pitched voice is the gold standard for initial de-escalation. This approach helps the client regain control without feeling trapped or attacked, preserving the integrity and safety of the therapeutic environment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the situation for immediate safety threats to the client, staff, and peers in the milieu.
The nurse identifies that the client is verbally aggressive and throwing safe objects (plastic cup), indicating high distress but not immediate lethal danger.
Rapid assessment determines whether emergency protocols (like security codes) are needed or if verbal de-escalation can be safely attempted.
2
Implement the least restrictive intervention by using therapeutic communication and non-threatening body language.
The nurse stands at an angle (not face-to-face), keeps hands visible, and speaks softly.
This stance reduces the perception of a threat, respects personal space boundaries, and helps lower the client's emotional arousal.
3
Continue to monitor the environment and client response, preparing to escalate interventions only if verbal methods fail.
The milieu remains controlled while the client is given the opportunity to regain behavioral control safely.
Stepped interventions ensure compliance with clients' rights to the least restrictive therapeutic environment.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Environment: De-escalation and Least Restrictive Interventions
Soru 2639Soru →

An older adult Roman Catholic client who recently received a terminal prognosis is experiencing severe bone pain and acute spiritual distress. The client is crying and states, "This illness is a punishment from God for my past mistakes. I feel completely abandoned." Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Validate the client's emotional distress by actively listening and remaining present in the room.; Administer the prescribed as-needed intravenous opioid analgesic to manage the physical pain.; Ask the client if they desire a consultation with a hospital chaplain or a Catholic priest.

Cevap

The appropriate actions are to validate the client's distress, administer the prescribed pain medication, and offer to contact a spiritual advisor.
When caring for a client experiencing both acute physical pain and severe spiritual distress, the nurse must apply Maslow's hierarchy of needs and address physiological priorities (pain management) concurrently with psychosocial interventions. Validating the client's feelings through active listening provides a safe therapeutic environment. Offering to contact a chaplain or priest facilitates specialized spiritual care while respecting the client's autonomy and specific religious framework.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's physiological and psychosocial presentation.
The client has acute severe bone pain and profound spiritual distress.
To determine the hierarchy of needs using Maslow's framework.
2
Evaluate therapeutic communication techniques.
Active listening and offering a chaplain are appropriate; providing false theological reassurance is non-therapeutic.
To support the client's spiritual autonomy without imposing personal beliefs.
3
Apply delegation principles.
Assessment of coping mechanisms cannot be delegated to a UAP.
The registered nurse must retain responsibility for all client assessments.
4
Select all appropriate and safely delegated interventions.
Validate distress, administer analgesics, and offer spiritual support.
These actions address both physiological needs and spiritual health appropriately.

Anahtar Kavram

Spiritual Distress, Prioritization, and Therapeutic Communication
Soru 2640Soru →

A nurse is managing a large blood spill on the floor of a client's room after an arterial line accidentally became disconnected. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to safely handle and clean this biohazardous material? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Restrict personnel and client access to the immediate spill area.; Cover the spill with absorbent materials to soak up the gross blood volume.; Dispose of all blood-saturated absorbent materials into a red biohazard bag.

Cevap

Restrict access to the spill area, cover the spill with absorbent materials, and dispose of blood-saturated items into a red biohazard bag.
When managing a large blood spill, the nurse must first restrict access to prevent spreading the pathogen. The gross volume of the spill must be absorbed using towels or a solidifying powder before applying a germicide, as large amounts of organic matter (blood) will inactivate the disinfectant. Finally, all saturated materials must be discarded in a red biohazard bag in accordance with standard precautions and OSHA regulations.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Secure the contaminated area
Personnel and clients are kept away from the spill
Prevents accidental tracking of the biohazard throughout the clinical unit
2
Absorb the gross blood volume
Absorbent towels or solidifying agents soak up the liquid blood
Chemical disinfectants are inactivated by heavy organic material, so the bulk of the blood must be removed before the floor can be properly disinfected
3
Dispose of saturated waste
Saturated materials are sealed in a red biohazard bag
Items dripping or saturated with blood meet OSHA criteria for regulated medical waste and require specialized handling

Anahtar Kavram

Management of biohazardous blood and body fluid spills
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Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-RN | Examkin