Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 2741Soru →

While receiving evening care, a client with early-stage Alzheimer's disease points to a shadow cast by an intravenous fluid pole and frantically states, "There is a tall man standing in the corner waiting to hurt me!" Which action should the nurse take first?

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Cevap: Turn on the room lights and calmly state that the shape is just a shadow from the equipment.

Cevap

Turn on the room lights and calmly state that the shape is just a shadow from the equipment.
The client is experiencing an illusion, which is a misinterpretation of a real environmental stimulus. The most effective first action is to alter the sensory environment (turning on the lights) to remove the source of the shadow and calmly orient the client to reality. This provides immediate relief and establishes safety.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's behavior and statement.
The client is misinterpreting a real external stimulus (the shadow from the IV pole) as a threatening person.
Identifying that the client is experiencing an illusion rather than a hallucination or delusion directs the appropriate intervention.
2
Determine the priority nursing intervention for visual illusions.
The immediate priority is to modify the environment to remove the stimulus and provide reality orientation.
Illusions are often triggered by poor lighting or unfamiliar environments. Correcting the sensory environment immediately alleviates the distress.
3
Evaluate the provided options against therapeutic communication and safety standards.
Altering the lighting and calmly explaining the source of the shadow is the only therapeutic and safe initial action.
Other actions inappropriately delegate care, minimize the client's feelings, or reinforce the misperception.

Anahtar Kavram

Nursing Management of Visual Illusions
Soru 2742Soru →

During a clinical shift, a registered nurse is responsible for a patient receiving continuous hydration via a peripheral venous access device with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride. The provider orders multiple new intravenous pharmacological treatments. To maintain patient safety and adhere to standard parenteral protocols, which interventions must the nurse execute? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Inspect the vascular access site for evidence of extravasation or phlebitis before delivering any pharmacological agents.; Disinfect the needleless connector using an antiseptic wipe with mechanical friction prior to syringe attachment.; Halt the primary hydration fluid and irrigate the tubing with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before and after giving an incompatible intravenous push drug.

Cevap

The correct practices are to inspect the vascular access site, disinfect the needleless connector with friction, and halt/flush the line when giving incompatible medications.
The correct interventions directly support evidence-based parenteral therapy protocols. Routine site inspection prevents complications such as infiltration; vigorous mechanical friction applied to the needleless connector prevents bloodstream infections; and isolating incompatible medications using normal saline flushes prevents dangerous intravascular precipitation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the clinical scenario requirements.
The nurse must safely administer multiple new IV medications through an existing peripheral line infusing 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.
Understanding the baseline setup is critical to determining which parenteral safety protocols apply.
2
Analyze standard pre-administration protocols.
Assessing the site for complications and scrubbing the hub for asepsis are mandatory safety steps.
These actions prevent administering medications into compromised tissue and minimize central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) risks.
3
Analyze protocols for drug compatibility and high-alert medications.
Compatibility must always be verified. Incompatible medications require flushing before and after administration. Furthermore, potassium chloride requires an infusion pump.
Mixing incompatible medications causes precipitation, and infusing potassium chloride via gravity can lead to lethal arrhythmias.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Intravenous Medication Administration Principles
Soru 2743Soru →

A client is recovering on the surgical unit 48 hours after undergoing a right above-the-knee amputation. Which basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse incorporate into the client's daily routine? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Position the client prone for 20 to 30 minutes three to four times daily.; Wash the residual limb with mild soap and warm water, ensuring it is completely dry.; Instruct the client to actively push the residual limb down against the mattress while supine.

Cevap

The correct interventions are positioning the client prone periodically, washing the residual limb with mild soap and water, and instructing the client to perform isometric exercises by pushing the limb against the mattress.
Prone positioning for 20 to 30 minutes several times a day stretches the flexor muscles and is a primary intervention to prevent hip flexion contractures, which are a major complication after lower extremity amputations. Washing the limb with mild soap and water maintains skin integrity without causing excessive dryness or maceration. Instructing the client to push the residual limb against the mattress consists of isometric exercises that strengthen muscles and prepare the limb for a prosthetic device.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's postoperative timeline and surgical procedure.
The client is 48 hours post-op from a right above-the-knee amputation.
The timeline is critical, as interventions that are acceptable in the first 24 hours (like elevation) become contraindicated later due to contracture risks.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety, scope of practice, and physiological benefit.
Prone positioning, hygiene, and isometric exercises are beneficial and safe. Elevation, delegation of assessment, and immediate restraints are contraindicated or outside the scope of practice.
Basic care and comfort must align with standard postoperative safety guidelines and legal nursing boundaries.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative amputation care focuses on preventing joint contractures, maintaining skin integrity, and preparing the residual limb for a prosthesis.
Soru 2744Soru →

A community health nurse is conducting an orientation screening at a local preschool for a newly enrolled 5-year-old student. Which observed behaviors and skills would the nurse document as age-appropriate developmental milestones? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Skips forward on alternating feet.; Ties their own shoelaces independently.; Correctly identifies and names four distinct colors.

Cevap

The correct milestones for a 5-year-old include skipping on alternating feet, independently tying shoelaces, and correctly identifying at least four distinct colors.
A 5-year-old child is at the end of the preschool developmental stage. Expected normative milestones at this age include complex gross motor abilities such as skipping on alternating feet, advanced fine motor control like independently tying shoelaces, and cognitive progress demonstrated by correctly identifying at least four colors.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's age and relevant developmental stage.
The client is a 5-year-old, which places them in the late preschool developmental stage.
Identifying the exact age determines the specific expectations for gross motor, fine motor, cognitive, and psychosocial domains.
2
Evaluate the gross and fine motor skill options against 5-year-old milestones.
Skipping on alternating feet (gross motor) and tying shoelaces (fine motor) are expected normative achievements for this age.
Preschoolers undergo rapid refinement of motor coordination.
3
Evaluate the cognitive and psychosocial skill options.
Naming four colors is expected. A 300-word vocabulary and parallel play are typical for 2-year-olds, not 5-year-olds.
By age 5, language expands to over 2,100 words and play becomes cooperative and interactive.

Anahtar Kavram

Expected developmental milestones for a 5-year-old preschooler, including gross motor, fine motor, cognitive, and psychosocial domains.
Soru 2745Soru →

A primary care clinic nurse is initiating a brief tobacco cessation intervention for a client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes per day. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequential order according to the evidence-based "5 A's" framework for treating tobacco use and dependence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for the 5 A's of smoking cessation is: Identify tobacco use (Ask), Urge the client to quit (Advise), Determine willingness to quit (Assess), Provide counseling and medication (Assist), and Schedule follow-up (Arrange).
The '5 A's' (Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange) is the gold standard, evidence-based clinical intervention framework for treating tobacco use and dependence. It is designed to be implemented sequentially to ensure that all tobacco users are identified, advised to quit, and offered appropriate, stage-matched support.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's current smoking status.
The 'Ask' phase establishes baseline use.
Assessment of current high-risk behavior must occur before any intervention can be planned.
2
Provide a strong, personalized message to quit.
The 'Advise' phase links the high-risk behavior to the client's health.
Clear advice from a healthcare professional significantly increases the likelihood that a client will consider quitting.
3
Evaluate the client's readiness to change.
The 'Assess' phase determines the direction of the rest of the intervention.
Interventions must be tailored to the client's current stage of behavioral change; a client not ready to quit requires a different approach than one who is.
4
Help the client develop a quit plan and offer treatments.
The 'Assist' phase provides actionable tools and resources.
Evidence-based support, practical counseling, and pharmacotherapy significantly increase long-term quit success rates.
5
Establish a timeline for subsequent check-ins.
The 'Arrange' phase ensures continuity of care.
Relapse risk is highest in the first week of quitting, making early and consistent follow-up critical for maintaining abstinence.

Anahtar Kavram

Tobacco Cessation Intervention (The 5 A's Framework)
Soru 2746Soru →

A 42-year-old female client of Ashkenazi Jewish descent presents to an ambulatory women's health clinic for a well-woman examination. The client's family pedigree reveals that her mother was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at age 52, and her maternal aunt was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 48. The client currently has no personal history of cancer. Which of the following nursing actions represents the highest priority health promotion intervention for this client?

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Cevap: Advocate for and facilitate a referral to a genetic counselor for comprehensive familial risk assessment.

Cevap

The correct action is to advocate for and facilitate a referral to a genetic counselor for a comprehensive familial risk assessment.
The client presents with multiple significant red flags for a hereditary cancer syndrome (e.g., BRCA1/2 mutations), including Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry and multiple maternal relatives with early-onset breast and ovarian cancers. The priority health promotion intervention for a client with this specific, elevated risk profile is a referral for genetic counseling. A genetic counselor can accurately assess the risk, recommend appropriate testing, and subsequently guide customized primary and secondary prevention strategies that go far beyond standard average-risk guidelines.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's demographic and familial health history.
The client is of Ashkenazi Jewish descent and has two first-degree or second-degree maternal relatives with early-onset breast and ovarian cancers.
Identifying genetic red flags is the critical first step in accurately assessing a client's specific risk profile.
2
Correlate the assessment findings with disease prevention guidelines.
The combination of this specific ancestry and the early-onset cancers strongly suggests a high probability of a hereditary cancer syndrome, such as a BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation.
Standard, average-risk screening protocols are insufficient for clients with a high likelihood of hereditary cancer syndromes.
3
Determine the highest priority health promotion intervention.
The nurse prioritizes interventions that address the most significant threat to the client's health, which is the potential genetic mutation.
Genetic counseling must occur first, as the risk assessment and subsequent genetic testing will dictate the necessity for highly targeted, aggressive primary and secondary prevention strategies (e.g., prophylactic surgery, breast MRI).

Anahtar Kavram

Identifying and prioritizing high-risk hereditary cancer profiles for genetic counseling over standard screening protocols.
Soru 2747Soru →

A pediatric nurse is caring for a toddler who weighs 16 kg16 \text{ kg} and is receiving treatment for bacterial meningitis. The client's current temperature is 38.9∘C38.9^\circ\text{C} (102∘F102^\circ\text{F}), heart rate is 135 bpm135 \text{ bpm}, and respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min28 \text{ breaths/min}. The client has a single-lumen peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes ampicillin 500 mg500 \text{ mg} IV and gentamicin 2.5 mg/kg2.5 \text{ mg/kg} IV. Both intermittent medications are scheduled to be administered at 09:00. The pharmacy supplies gentamicin in a multiple-dose vial labeled 20 mg/mL20 \text{ mg/mL}. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Cevap: Draw up 2 mL2 \text{ mL} of gentamicin from the vial. Administer the ampicillin infusion first, thoroughly flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride}, and then administer the gentamicin infusion.

Cevap

Draw up 2 mL2 \text{ mL} of gentamicin from the vial. Administer the ampicillin infusion first, thoroughly flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride}, and then administer the gentamicin infusion.
The correct action involves first calculating the accurate dose: 16 kg×2.5 mg/kg=40 mg16 \text{ kg} \times 2.5 \text{ mg/kg} = 40 \text{ mg}. Next, calculating the required volume: 40 mg÷20 mg/mL=2 mL40 \text{ mg} \div 20 \text{ mg/mL} = 2 \text{ mL}. Because penicillins (like ampicillin) and aminoglycosides (like gentamicin) are physically incompatible and can chemically inactivate each other, they must not be mixed in the same IV line. For a client with a single-lumen catheter, the nurse must administer the medications sequentially and thoroughly flush the line with a compatible solution, such as 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride}, between the infusions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the required dose of gentamicin using the client's weight in kilograms.
16 kg×2.5 mg/kg=40 mg16 \text{ kg} \times 2.5 \text{ mg/kg} = 40 \text{ mg} of gentamicin.
Pediatric medication dosing is strictly weight-based and must be calculated accurately before administration to prevent toxicity or underdosing.
2
Calculate the volume of gentamicin needed from the supplied vial.
40 mg÷20 mg/mL=2 mL40 \text{ mg} \div 20 \text{ mg/mL} = 2 \text{ mL}.
To ensure the exact required physical volume is drawn from the vial for the intermittent infusion.
3
Evaluate the IV compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Ampicillin (a penicillin) and gentamicin (an aminoglycoside) are physically incompatible and chemically inactivate each other if mixed.
Medications scheduled for the same time must be checked for Y-site compatibility to prevent crystallization, precipitation, or loss of therapeutic efficacy.
4
Determine the correct administration sequence for a single-lumen IV line.
Administer the medications sequentially, thoroughly flushing the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride} between the infusions.
When incompatible medications are scheduled concurrently for a client with a single IV access, they must be given one after the other with adequate flushing to ensure the drugs never mix in the tubing.

Anahtar Kavram

Pediatric Weight-Based Dosage Calculation and IV Medication Compatibility
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 2748Soru →

A client hospitalized with a bacterial infection has a continuous peripheral intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline. The healthcare provider prescribes a scheduled dose of IV ciprofloxacin. Which safety check is the most critical for the nurse to perform before connecting the new medication to the primary line?

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Cevap: Verify that the prescribed antibiotic is physically compatible with the running normal saline.

Cevap

Verify that the prescribed antibiotic is physically compatible with the running normal saline.
Before attaching any secondary medication to a primary intravenous line, the nurse must consult a drug reference guide or pharmacist to ensure the substances are physically and chemically compatible. Failure to do so can result in precipitation within the tubing, which can block the catheter or enter the client's bloodstream.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the proposed procedure
The nurse needs to administer a secondary IV medication into an existing primary continuous IV line.
Understanding the route helps identify the associated risks, such as drug-drug interactions within the tubing.
2
Determine the highest priority safety check
Checking the compatibility of the two fluids is required.
Mixing incompatible intravenous fluids or medications can cause crystallization or precipitation in the tubing, posing a life-threatening risk to the client.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Medication Compatibility
Soru 2749Soru →

A client with a long-standing history of heavy, daily alcohol consumption is admitted to the hospital. To accurately anticipate client care needs and safety risks, the nurse must understand the clinical progression of alcohol withdrawal syndrome. Arrange the following manifestations of alcohol withdrawal in the chronological order they are most likely to appear following the client's last drink.

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Cevap

The correct chronological progression is: mild tremors and anxiety (6-12 hours), followed by hallucinosis with intact orientation (12-24 hours), then generalized seizures (24-48 hours), and finally profound confusion and autonomic hyperactivity (48-72 hours).
Alcohol withdrawal follows a predictable chronological timeline driven by central nervous system hyperarousal following the removal of alcohol, a CNS depressant. Minor withdrawal (tremors, anxiety) begins within 6-12 hours. If unmanaged, this progresses to alcoholic hallucinosis (12-24 hours), where the client experiences sensory disturbances but remains oriented. The risk for generalized tonic-clonic seizures peaks at 24-48 hours. Finally, delirium tremens, a life-threatening state of severe confusion and autonomic hyperactivity, typically emerges 48-72 hours after the last drink.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the earliest signs of withdrawal.
Mild tremors, anxiety, and diaphoresis are selected as the first manifestation.
These minor symptoms occur within 6 to 12 hours as the central nervous system initially rebounds from alcohol's depressive effects.
2
Determine the next phase of neurological disruption.
Hallucinations with intact orientation are selected as the second manifestation.
Alcoholic hallucinosis typically occurs 12 to 24 hours after the last drink, preceding more severe neurological complications.
3
Identify the peak time for acute seizure activity.
Generalized tonic-clonic seizures are selected as the third manifestation.
The seizure threshold is at its lowest between 24 and 48 hours after cessation, making this the peak window for withdrawal seizures.
4
Identify the final and most severe stage of withdrawal.
Profound confusion and severe autonomic hyperactivity (delirium tremens) are placed last.
Delirium tremens typically begins 48 to 72 hours post-cessation and represents a medical emergency.

Anahtar Kavram

The chronological progression of alcohol withdrawal syndrome dictates nursing priorities, moving from early symptom management to monitoring for late-stage, life-threatening complications.
Soru 2750Soru →

A nurse is preparing to remove a client's non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC). To reduce the risk of a potentially fatal air embolism, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Cevap

First position the client supine, then instruct them to perform the Valsalva maneuver, withdraw the catheter smoothly, and finally apply an occlusive dressing.
Removing a central venous catheter carries a high risk of air embolism if atmospheric air enters the central circulation. To reduce this risk, the nurse must manipulate pressure dynamics. First, placing the client in a supine or Trendelenburg position naturally increases central venous pressure. Second, having the client perform the Valsalva maneuver creates positive intrathoracic pressure, effectively blocking air from entering. Third, the catheter is withdrawn while this positive pressure is maintained. Finally, immediately applying an occlusive (air-tight) dressing seals the skin tract, preventing any subsequent air entry once the client resumes normal breathing.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Place the client in a flat, supine or slight Trendelenburg position.
Central venous pressure increases.
This prevents gravity from creating negative pressure that could draw air into the vein.
2
Instruct the client to take a deep breath and bear down (Valsalva maneuver).
Positive intrathoracic pressure is created.
Positive pressure in the chest prevents atmospheric air from being sucked into the central venous system.
3
Withdraw the catheter smoothly and continuously.
The catheter is removed safely.
Removing it during the Valsalva maneuver ensures air does not enter.
4
Apply immediate pressure with an occlusive dressing over the insertion site.
The insertion tract is sealed.
An occlusive dressing prevents air entry and pressure stops bleeding.

Anahtar Kavram

Central Venous Catheter Removal Safety Protocol
Soru 2751Soru →

Upon returning from the laboratory, a staff member drops a glass specimen tube containing a patient's blood, which shatters on the clinic floor. The charge nurse immediately secures the area to prevent exposure. Place the following steps for managing this biohazardous spill in the correct chronological order.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for managing a biohazardous spill involving sharps is: don PPE, mechanically remove the sharps, dispose of sharps in a designated container, absorb the fluid, and finally disinfect the surface.
When a biohazardous spill involves broken glass, the nurse's first priority is personal protection, which requires donning PPE. Next, the immediate physical hazard of the broken glass must be addressed using mechanical means (never hands) to prevent accidental puncture injuries. The glass must go directly into a sharps container, as regular biohazard bags offer no puncture resistance. Once the sharps are cleared, the nurse can safely absorb the bulk organic material (blood). Finally, with the visible fluid removed, an EPA-registered chemical disinfectant can effectively decontaminate the surface.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Secure the area and don appropriate PPE.
The nurse is protected from potential bloodborne pathogen exposure.
Safety is the primary priority before handling any hazardous material.
2
Use mechanical means (forceps) to pick up the broken glass.
The glass is safely gathered without direct hand contact.
Direct contact with contaminated sharps, even with gloves, significantly increases the risk of percutaneous injury.
3
Dispose of the glass in a sharps container.
Sharps are isolated in a puncture-resistant receptacle.
Red biohazard bags can be easily punctured by glass shards, creating a hazard for environmental services personnel.
4
Absorb the remaining fluid with disposable towels.
The bulk organic matter is removed from the floor.
Organic material like blood can inactivate chemical disinfectants, so it must be removed prior to the disinfection process.
5
Apply an EPA-registered tuberculocidal or hospital disinfectant.
The affected area is fully decontaminated.
Chemical disinfection kills any remaining microscopic bloodborne pathogens on the environmental surface.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of a bloodborne pathogen spill involving sharps requires strict adherence to OSHA standards, prioritizing the mechanical removal of sharps before absorbing the fluid and disinfecting the surface.
Soru 2752Soru →

A nurse is teaching a client who has left leg weakness how to ambulate safely using a straight cane. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence from first to last to ensure a safe gait.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: hold the cane in the right hand, move the cane forward, advance the left (weak) leg, and then advance the right (strong) leg.
Safe cane ambulation relies on maintaining a wide base of support and ensuring weight is distributed safely. The client must first hold the cane on the unaffected (stronger) side—in this case, the right hand. The sequence of a step begins by moving the cane forward 6 to 10 inches. Next, the weaker (left) leg is brought forward to align with the cane so that the strong leg and the cane support the body's weight. Finally, the stronger (right) leg is advanced past the cane to complete the step.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine which hand should hold the cane.
The cane should be held in the right hand.
A cane is placed on the unaffected (stronger) side. Since the client has left leg weakness, the right side is the strong side.
2
Identify the first movement in the ambulation sequence.
The cane is moved forward 6 to 10 inches.
Establishing a forward point of contact widens the base of support before any legs are lifted.
3
Determine which leg steps forward first.
The left (weaker) leg is advanced to align with the cane.
The weaker leg moves while the strong right leg remains planted securely behind, sharing the body's weight with the cane.
4
Identify the final movement in the step.
The right (stronger) leg is advanced past the cane.
The strong leg steps through to complete the stride, momentarily relying on the cane and the weaker leg for stability.

Anahtar Kavram

Assistive device use: Cane ambulation sequence
Soru 2753Soru →

A gerontology nurse performs a comprehensive physical assessment on a 76-year-old client living independently in the community. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse document as an expected physiological adaptation of senescence rather than an acute pathological process?

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Cevap: An asymptomatic S4 heart sound auscultated at the cardiac apex

Cevap

An asymptomatic S4 heart sound auscultated at the cardiac apex is an expected physiological adaptation of senescence.
As individuals age, physiological changes such as increased myocardial collagen deposition and decreased left ventricular compliance naturally occur. This stiffening of the left ventricle means the atria must contract harder to push blood into the ventricle during late diastole, producing a physiological S4 heart sound. In the absence of other cardiac symptoms, this is an expected, asymptomatic finding in older adults and does not require acute intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's age and the goal of the assessment.
The client is 76 years old. The nurse must differentiate between normal physiological aging changes and signs of acute, pathological diseases.
Accurate clinical judgment requires distinguishing expected baseline changes from high-priority acute medical issues.
2
Evaluate the cardiovascular finding.
An S4 heart sound in an older adult without cardiovascular symptoms is identified as a normal variant due to age-related decreased left ventricular compliance.
Myocardial collagen increases and compliance decreases with age, causing the atria to contract against a stiffer ventricle, producing an S4 sound.
3
Evaluate the remaining options for pathology.
A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), new-onset dysphagia, and acute alterations in consciousness are all identified as abnormal, pathological findings requiring immediate medical intervention.
Misinterpreting these acute signs as 'normal aging' leads to delayed care and poor patient outcomes.

Anahtar Kavram

Distinguishing normal physiological changes of aging from acute pathological processes.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2754Soru →

A home health nurse is managing the care of a client with advanced metastatic melanoma who is transitioning to the final days of life. The family expresses severe distress upon hearing the client develop noisy, rattling breathing. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: Administer a prescribed anticholinergic medication to reduce the volume of respiratory secretions.; Position the client in a side-lying posture with the head of the bed elevated.; Perform frequent oral hygiene using a soft, moistened swab to maintain mucous membrane integrity.

Cevap

The correct interventions are administering an anticholinergic medication, positioning the client in a side-lying posture with the head elevated, and performing frequent oral hygiene.
Appropriate management of terminal secretions involves non-invasive methods to clear or reduce fluids. Anticholinergic medications dry up excessive secretions, reducing the auditory distress for the family and maintaining comfort. Positioning the client on their side with the head elevated uses gravity to facilitate drainage and prevent fluid pooling in the oropharynx. Furthermore, frequent oral care maintains moisture and comfort, as these clients often breathe through their mouths and cannot clear secretions on their own.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the clinical phenomenon occurring in the scenario.
The client is experiencing the 'death rattle', which is the accumulation of secretions in the airway typical during the final days of life.
Recognizing the symptom allows for the selection of appropriate, evidence-based palliative interventions.
2
Evaluate pharmacological and non-pharmacological comfort measures.
Anticholinergics, repositioning (side-lying/elevated head), and regular oral care are identified as safe and effective comfort measures.
These interventions directly address the pooling of secretions and maintain client comfort without relying on invasive procedures like deep suctioning.
3
Identify contraindicated or inappropriate actions.
Flat positioning, delegating assessments to a UAP, and using non-therapeutic communication are identified as incorrect.
These actions violate the registered nurse's scope of practice, worsen the client's symptoms, and fail to support the family psychologically.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of terminal secretions ('death rattle') in end-of-life care
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2755Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of cefepime 1 gram in 50 mL50\text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride intravenously over 30 minutes30\text{ minutes} to a client with a respiratory tract infection. At what rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse set the intravenous infusion pump? Record your answer as a whole number.

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Cevap: 100

Cevap

100
To determine the correct IV pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, the nurse must calculate how many milliliters would infuse in 60 minutes based on the prescribed rate. By dividing the total volume (50 mL50\text{ mL}) by the time in hours (0.5 hours0.5\text{ hours}), the calculation is 50 mL0.5 hr=100 mL/hr\frac{50\text{ mL}}{0.5\text{ hr}} = 100\text{ mL/hr}. Alternatively, using the standard formula: 50 mL30 min×60 min/hr=100 mL/hr\frac{50\text{ mL}}{30\text{ min}} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 100\text{ mL/hr}. Setting the pump to 100 mL/hr100\text{ mL/hr} ensures the entire 50 mL50\text{ mL} volume is delivered exactly in 30 minutes30\text{ minutes}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the total volume of the IV solution.
50 mL50\text{ mL}
The infusion pump rate calculation requires the total volume of fluid to be administered.
2
Identify the total prescribed infusion time.
30 minutes30\text{ minutes}
The prescription specifies the duration over which the medication must safely infuse.
3
Convert the infusion time from minutes to hours.
0.5 hours0.5\text{ hours} (since 30÷60=0.530 \div 60 = 0.5)
Intravenous infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, requiring a time conversion if the order is written in minutes.
4
Calculate the final pump rate.
100 mL/hr100\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the volume by the time in hours: 50 mL0.5 hr=100 mL/hr\frac{50\text{ mL}}{0.5\text{ hr}} = 100\text{ mL/hr}.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating intravenous infusion pump rates in mL/hr for intermittent piggyback medications.
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 2756Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer 40 mEq of intravenous (IV) potassium chloride (KCl) to a client with a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L). Which of the following actions demonstrates the safest method for administering this parenteral therapy?

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Cevap: Ensure the medication is diluted in a large volume of IV fluid and infused via an electronic pump at a maximum rate of 10 mEq per hour.

Cevap

Ensure the medication is diluted in a large volume of IV fluid and infused via an electronic pump at a maximum rate of 10 mEq per hour.
Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert medication that must always be diluted and administered via an electronic infusion pump to prevent cardiac arrhythmias and arrest. The standard maximum safe administration rate for a peripheral line is 10 mEq per hour to prevent both cardiac toxicity and severe phlebitis at the IV site.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the medication and its safety profile.
Potassium chloride (KCl) is identified as a high-alert medication.
Improper administration of KCl can rapidly lead to fatal cardiac arrhythmias.
2
Determine the mandatory administration rules for IV KCl.
It must be diluted, administered via an infusion pump, and never given IV push.
These controls prevent sudden spikes in serum potassium levels.
3
Verify the safe infusion rate.
The maximum safe rate is generally 10 mEq/hr through a peripheral line.
Exceeding this rate causes venous irritation and risks cardiac toxicity.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Intravenous Administration of Potassium Chloride
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 2757Soru →

A nurse at a community outreach center is speaking with a young adult client who actively injects illicit substances. The client states, "I know sharing needles is dangerous, so I only share the water, cookers, and cotton filters with my closest friends." Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Sharing any preparation equipment, including water or cotton, can still transmit infections like hepatitis C and HIV.

Cevap

The most appropriate response is to inform the client that sharing any preparation equipment, including water or cotton, can still transmit infections like hepatitis C and HIV.
The correct response directly addresses the client's knowledge deficit by providing objective, factual harm-reduction education. Hepatitis C and HIV can be transmitted through microscopic amounts of blood present in shared drug preparation equipment, such as water, cookers, and cotton filters, even if a new needle is used.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's statement to identify the knowledge deficit and high-risk behavior.
The client incorrectly believes that only sharing needles transmits disease, while sharing preparation equipment (water, cookers, cotton) is safe.
Identifying the specific misconception is necessary to provide targeted, effective harm-reduction education.
2
Evaluate the nursing responses for therapeutic communication and factual accuracy.
The response providing factual information about the risks of sharing preparation equipment is both accurate and non-judgmental.
Therapeutic communication in harm reduction focuses on providing objective health education to empower the client to make safer choices without feeling alienated.

Anahtar Kavram

Harm Reduction and Injection Safety
Soru 2758Soru →

A 58-year-old client with end-stage cirrhosis and severe ascites is scheduled to undergo a bedside paracentesis. Which of the following nursing actions is the priority to reduce the risk of a serious complication during this procedure?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assisting the client to empty their bladder immediately before the procedure.

Cevap

Assisting the client to empty their bladder immediately before the procedure.
A full bladder can extend upward into the abdominal cavity, placing it in the direct path of the paracentesis needle. Having the client void immediately prior to the procedure decompresses the bladder, dropping it down into the pelvis. This fundamental nursing action significantly reduces the risk of an accidental, life-threatening bladder perforation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the anatomical risks associated with a paracentesis.
The procedure involves inserting a trocar into the abdominal cavity. A distended bladder extends upward into this space.
Understanding the anatomical relationship between the bladder and the abdominal cavity identifies the primary puncture risk.
2
Determine the optimal intervention to mitigate this risk.
Emptying the bladder reduces its size and keeps it safely within the pelvis.
A decompressed bladder is protected from accidental puncture by the paracentesis needle, directly reducing a major procedural complication.

Anahtar Kavram

Paracentesis Safety and Risk Reduction
Soru 2759Soru →

An adolescent client, aged 15, is admitted to the inpatient pediatric oncology unit for induction chemotherapy. The client expresses frustration about missing the upcoming high school homecoming dance and refuses to speak with visiting family members. Which nursing intervention best promotes the client's psychosocial development during this hospitalization?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Facilitate a connection between the client and a peer support group of other hospitalized teens.

Cevap

Facilitate a connection between the client and a peer support group of other hospitalized teens.
Adolescents (ages 12 to 18) are in Erikson's stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion. Their primary psychosocial task is developing a sense of self and personal identity, which is heavily influenced by peer relationships. Hospitalization can isolate teens from their normal social circles, leading to frustration, anger, and withdrawal from parents as they seek independence. Facilitating connections with peers who are facing similar health challenges provides vital emotional support, normalizes their experience, and actively promotes their developmental milestones.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's current age and corresponding psychosocial developmental stage.
The client is 15 years old, placing them in Erikson's stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion.
Developmental stage determines what stressors are most impactful and which interventions are most effective.
2
Analyze the client's behavior and statements in the context of their developmental stage.
The frustration over missing a school dance and withdrawing from family reflects the adolescent's primary focus on peer relationships and growing need for independence.
Understanding the root cause of the behavior guides the selection of targeted psychosocial support.
3
Evaluate the nursing interventions to select the one that meets the adolescent's specific psychosocial needs.
Connecting the client with a peer support group addresses the need for peer belonging, whereas the other options target younger developmental stages.
Appropriate nursing care must match the client's cognitive and psychosocial maturity level.

Anahtar Kavram

Erikson's Psychosocial Development: Identity vs. Role Confusion in Adolescence
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2760Soru →

A nurse is teaching basic mobility techniques to an older adult client who is 2 days post-operative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). The client is preparing to transfer from a standing position using a standard walker to a sitting position in an armchair. Which instruction should the nurse provide to ensure client safety and comfort?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Extend your right leg forward, reach back to grasp the chair's armrests, and lower yourself using your left leg.

Cevap

The correct instruction is to extend the right leg forward, reach back to grasp the chair's armrests, and lower the body using the left leg.
The correct answer maintains the integrity of the total hip arthroplasty by keeping the operative right leg extended, which prevents dangerous hip flexion past 90 degrees. Additionally, teaching the client to reach back for the chair's armrests follows safe assistive device principles, preventing the walker from tipping over during the weight transfer.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific precautions.
The client had a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Precautions include avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, internal rotation, and adduction.
Post-operative positioning rules are dictated by the surgical approach to prevent joint dislocation.
2
Determine the correct body mechanics for a walker-to-chair transfer.
The client must back up to the chair, reach back for the armrests, and avoid using the walker to bear weight while lowering into the seat.
Standard walkers can tip backward if pulled upon during the downward transition to sitting.
3
Integrate the THA precautions with the transfer mechanics.
The client must extend the operative (right) leg forward while sitting.
Extending the leg ensures the angle between the torso and the thigh never becomes less than 90 degrees during the seating motion.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Safe Client Transfers and Positioning Precautions
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Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-RN | Examkin