Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 3001Soru →

A nurse leading a wellness seminar at a local community center is discussing the different levels of disease prevention with a group of middle-aged adults. Which of the following examples provided by the nurse accurately represent secondary prevention? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: Undergoing a routine colonoscopy at age 45.; Obtaining a fasting lipid profile during an annual physical examination.; Completing a standardized questionnaire to screen for signs of depression.

Cevap

The correct secondary prevention interventions are undergoing a routine colonoscopy, obtaining a fasting lipid profile, and completing a depression screening questionnaire.
Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat asymptomatic persons who have already developed risk factors or preclinical disease but in whom the condition has not become clinically apparent. Screening tests—such as colonoscopies for colorectal cancer, fasting lipid profiles for hyperlipidemia, and questionnaires for depression—are the hallmark interventions of secondary prevention. They allow for early detection and prompt intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the core objective of the question.
The scenario requires identifying examples of secondary prevention from a list of various health promotion activities.
Correctly identifying the type of prevention being asked is the essential first step to evaluating the distractors.
2
Recall the definition of secondary prevention.
Secondary prevention focuses on screening, early detection, and prompt treatment of diseases in asymptomatic individuals.
This definition provides the criterion to determine which options are correct.
3
Evaluate each option against the levels of prevention.
Colonoscopies, lipid profiles, and depression questionnaires are screening tools (secondary). Sunscreen and vaccinations prevent disease onset (primary). Cardiac rehab restores health after an event (tertiary).
Systematically categorizing each option ensures all correct answers are selected in this multiple-response format.

Anahtar Kavram

Levels of Disease Prevention (Primary, Secondary, Tertiary)
Soru 3002Soru →

A pediatric client with otitis media is prescribed amoxicillin 250 mg250 \text{ mg} by mouth every 88 hours. The pharmacy dispenses an oral suspension labeled 125 mg/5 mL125 \text{ mg} / 5 \text{ mL}. Based on this information, how many milliliters (mL\text{mL}) should the nurse administer for each individual dose?

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Cevap: 10 mL10 \text{ mL}

Cevap

The nurse should administer 10 mL10 \text{ mL} of the medication for each dose.
The correct answer is 10 mL10 \text{ mL}. To determine the appropriate volume, the nurse uses the formula (Desired / Have) ×\times Quantity. The desired dose is 250 mg250 \text{ mg} and the available concentration is 125 mg125 \text{ mg} per 5 mL5 \text{ mL}. The calculation is (250125)×5=2×5=10 mL(\frac{250}{125}) \times 5 = 2 \times 5 = 10 \text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the prescribed (desired) dose.
Desired dose = 250 mg250 \text{ mg}.
This is the target amount of medication ordered by the provider for a single administration.
2
Identify the available medication concentration.
Have = 125 mg125 \text{ mg}, Quantity = 5 mL5 \text{ mL}.
This information is found on the pharmacy label of the medication bottle.
3
Calculate the volume to administer using the formula: (Desired/Have)×Quantity(\text{Desired} / \text{Have}) \times \text{Quantity}.
(250125)×5=2×5=10 mL(\frac{250}{125}) \times 5 = 2 \times 5 = 10 \text{ mL}.
Applying the standard medication math formula ensures the correct liquid volume is prepared.

Anahtar Kavram

Medication Dosage Calculation
Soru 3003Soru →

A community health nurse is conducting an initial in-home assessment for an octogenarian who recently relocated to live with their adult children. The family shares several observations about the client's health. Which of the following findings should the nurse document as expected physiological changes of aging? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: A gradual decrease in the ability to distinguish high-pitched consonant sounds during conversation.; A noticeable, progressive loss of two inches in overall body height over the past decade.; A delayed gastrointestinal transit time and prolonged gastric emptying following meals.

Cevap

The expected physiological changes of aging are a gradual decrease in the ability to distinguish high-pitched sounds, a progressive loss of overall body height, and delayed gastrointestinal transit time.
Normal physiological changes of aging are characterized by gradual, progressive declines across body systems. These include sensory changes like presbycusis (high-frequency hearing loss), musculoskeletal adaptations such as thinning intervertebral discs leading to a loss in height, and gastrointestinal changes including decreased peristalsis and delayed gastric emptying. These expected adaptations do not signify acute illness.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze each reported clinical finding to determine if it represents a gradual adaptation of senescence or an acute pathological condition.
The findings are categorized into expected age-related changes versus acute medical red flags.
Nurses must differentiate between normal aging and illness to prioritize appropriate interventions and avoid dismissing serious symptoms.
2
Identify the expected physiological changes of the sensory, musculoskeletal, and gastrointestinal systems.
High-frequency hearing loss (presbycusis), height loss from thinning intervertebral discs, and decreased gastrointestinal motility are identified as normal.
These represent gradual, systemic declines in reserve capacity typical of standard human aging.
3
Identify the pathological findings that require immediate medical referral.
Sudden disorientation (delirium), dark/abruptly decreased urine (dehydration/infection), and new resting tachycardia (arrhythmia) are identified as acute abnormalities.
Sudden or acute shifts in baseline physiological or cognitive function are hallmarks of acute illness in older adults.

Anahtar Kavram

Physiological Adaptations of the Aging Process versus Acute Pathology
Soru 3004Soru →

A nurse at a community health fair is educating a healthy 45-year-old client about lifestyle modifications for cardiovascular health. The client, whose parents both have hypertension, asks for strategies to avoid developing the condition. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

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Cevap: Maintaining a normal body weight and engaging in brisk walking for thirty minutes most days of the week is highly recommended.

Cevap

The nurse should recommend maintaining a normal body weight and engaging in brisk walking for thirty minutes most days of the week.
The correct response promotes primary prevention through modifiable lifestyle factors. Lifestyle choices, including maintaining a healthy body mass index and participating in regular aerobic activity, are evidence-based interventions that effectively lower the risk of developing hypertension and cardiovascular disease.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's request in the clinical scenario.
The client is asking for strategies to avoid developing hypertension, which requires identifying primary prevention lifestyle modifications.
Understanding the client's goal ensures the nurse provides accurate, actionable, and therapeutic education.
2
Evaluate the nursing responses against evidence-based practice and therapeutic communication standards.
Only the recommendation for weight management and aerobic exercise serves as a primary prevention lifestyle choice.
The other options incorrectly identify screenings as preventative, falsely attribute pathology to normal aging, or use non-therapeutic communication blocks.

Anahtar Kavram

Primary Prevention through Lifestyle Modifications
Soru 3005Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Ten minutes after the transfusion begins, the client reports sudden chills, severe lower back pain, and shortness of breath. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority order to manage this situation from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion to prevent further exposure, then maintain IV access with new tubing and normal saline, followed by a rapid assessment of the client. After mitigating immediate threats, the nurse notifies the provider and blood bank, and finally returns the equipment for diagnostic investigation.
In a suspected acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the most critical risk reduction action is to remove the offending agent by stopping the transfusion immediately. Next, patent IV access must be maintained with completely new tubing and normal saline to prevent flushing residual blood into the client and to allow for emergency medication administration. Only after securing safety and access should the nurse assess the client's current status to report accurate findings to the provider. Finally, the remaining blood products are sent to the blood bank for mandatory analysis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the blood transfusion.
The infusion of incompatible blood is halted.
This is the primary risk reduction strategy to prevent further antigen-antibody reactions and organ damage.
2
Change the IV tubing and initiate normal saline.
Patent venous access is secured without flushing more blood into the client.
Vascular access is required for emergency resuscitation, but the existing tubing contains incompatible blood that must not be infused.
3
Assess the client.
Baseline data on the severity of the reaction is obtained.
The nurse needs current vital signs, oxygen saturation, and respiratory status to report to the provider.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and blood bank.
Medical interventions are prescribed and facility protocols are activated.
Collaborative care is necessary to treat the systemic reaction and begin the root-cause analysis.
5
Return the blood bag and tubing to the laboratory.
Evidence is preserved for typing and cross-matching analysis.
The laboratory must test the remaining product to identify the specific incompatibility that caused the reaction.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Soru 3006Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache, and the nurse notes profound facial flushing and diaphoresis above the level of the injury. The client's current blood pressure is 218/114 mm Hg. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the priority order they should be performed, from first to last.

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Cevap

The priority sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, followed by loosening constrictive clothing, assessing for the noxious stimulus, administering antihypertensives if the condition persists, and finally documenting the event.
In autonomic dysreflexia, the immediate goal is to lower the blood pressure to prevent a stroke while simultaneously hunting for the trigger. Elevating the head of the bed achieves the fastest drop in blood pressure. Once positioned safely, the nurse systematically removes triggers from least invasive (clothing) to most common (bladder/bowel). Medications are reserved for when removing triggers fails to resolve the severe hypertension.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the signs of autonomic dysreflexia.
Identify the medical emergency requiring immediate blood pressure reduction.
A T4 spinal cord injury combined with sudden extreme hypertension, headache, and diaphoresis indicates this life-threatening syndrome.
2
Position the client upright.
Blood pressure begins to lower.
Gravity promotes venous pooling in the lower extremities, reducing venous return and subsequently providing an immediate, non-pharmacological reduction in blood pressure.
3
Eliminate sensory triggers.
Noxious stimuli are removed.
Loosening tight clothing and draining the bladder directly address the root causes triggering the exaggerated sympathetic nervous system response.
4
Administer medications and document.
Blood pressure normalizes and the care record is updated.
Persistent hypertension requires pharmacological management, followed by accurate legal and clinical documentation once the crisis is resolved.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of autonomic dysreflexia in spinal cord injuries
Soru 3007Soru →

A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic is teaching an older adult client how to independently administer prescribed glaucoma eye drops at home. Arrange the steps of this self-care procedure in the correct chronological sequence.

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence for self-administering eye drops is: wash hands, tilt head back, form a pocket with the lower eyelid, instill the drop into the conjunctival sac, and finally close the eye while applying pressure to the inner canthus.
Safe and effective self-administration of eye drops requires a precise sequence to ensure sterility, proper placement, and local absorption. The client must first wash their hands to prevent infection. Next, tilting the head back and pulling the lower eyelid down creates a pocket in the conjunctival sac, which is less sensitive than the cornea. Instilling the drop into this sac without touching the dropper to the eye maintains sterility. Finally, applying pressure to the inner canthus (nasolacrimal occlusion) minimizes systemic absorption of the medication, which is particularly important for glaucoma medications.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Wash hands with soap and water and remove the medication cap.
Hands are clean and the medication is ready for use.
Prevents the introduction of infectious agents into the eye.
2
Tilt the head back slightly and gaze upward.
The eye is positioned optimally.
Minimizes the blink reflex and allows gravity to assist in drop placement.
3
Gently pull the lower eyelid downward.
A small pocket is formed in the lower conjunctival sac.
Provides a safe reservoir for the medication, avoiding the highly sensitive cornea.
4
Instill the medication into the conjunctival sac.
Medication is delivered without contamination.
Ensures proper dosing while maintaining the sterility of the dropper tip.
5
Close the eye and apply pressure to the inner corner.
Medication is retained locally in the eye.
Nasolacrimal occlusion prevents systemic absorption of the medication.

Anahtar Kavram

Self-Administration of Ophthalmic Medications
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 3008Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent intravenous (IV) antibiotic piggyback to a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following nursing actions are required for safe administration? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Verify the compatibility of the antibiotic with 0.9% sodium chloride using a drug reference guide.; Assess the IV insertion site for signs of infiltration, such as coolness or edema, prior to administration.; Scrub the hub of the primary IV tubing's Y-site with an antiseptic swab before connecting the piggyback.

Cevap

The correct actions include verifying the compatibility of the antibiotic with the primary fluid, assessing the IV insertion site for complications, and scrubbing the Y-site hub with an antiseptic swab.
Safe intravenous administration requires a multi-step approach focused on preventing complications. Verifying compatibility prevents chemical reactions inside the tubing. Assessing the IV site confirms the catheter is correctly placed in the vein, preventing extravasation or infiltration. Finally, scrubbing the connection hub with an antiseptic is a critical infection control measure to prevent catheter-associated bloodstream infections.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the need for compatibility verification.
The nurse must verify compatibility, as no fluid is universally compatible with all medications.
This prevents precipitation and crystallization inside the IV tubing.
2
Evaluate the physical assessment requirements for the IV site.
The nurse must inspect the site for infiltration and phlebitis.
Administering medications into a compromised IV site can cause severe tissue damage.
3
Evaluate infection control practices.
The nurse must scrub the injection port (hub) prior to connection.
This maintains a sterile line and prevents bloodstream infections.
4
Evaluate the method for determining the infusion rate.
The nurse must mathematically calculate the drops per minute or use an electronic infusion pump.
Visual estimation is inaccurate and can lead to dangerous dosage errors or speed shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Intravenous (IV) Medication Administration Principles
Soru 3009Soru →

A nurse is providing care for a client who has just returned to the nursing unit following a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of post-procedure complications?

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Cevap: Maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the prescribed amount of time.

Cevap

The nurse should maintain the client in a flat, supine position for the prescribed amount of time.
Following a lumbar puncture, the primary goal is to prevent the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the dural puncture site, which can lead to a severe spinal headache. Maintaining the client in a flat, supine position for a prescribed period (typically 1 to 4 hours, depending on facility policy and provider orders) minimizes hydrostatic pressure on the puncture site, allowing it to seal properly and reducing the risk of this complication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the procedure the client underwent.
The client had a lumbar puncture.
Understanding the procedure is essential to anticipate potential post-procedure complications.
2
Determine the most common complication associated with this procedure.
A post-lumbar puncture headache (spinal headache) caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
Identifying the primary risk dictates the appropriate nursing interventions.
3
Select the intervention that directly mitigates this specific risk.
Keeping the client in a flat, supine position minimizes pressure on the puncture site.
This positioning reduces cerebrospinal fluid leakage and prevents the development of a spinal headache.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Lumbar Puncture Care and Positioning
Soru 3010Soru →

A 68-year-old client is admitted to the medical unit with suspected Neisseria meningitidis. The client is experiencing acute delirium, severe photophobia, and is repeatedly attempting to climb over the bed rails. Which nursing action represents the safest and most appropriate plan of care?

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Cevap: Initiate droplet precautions, activate a bed-exit alarm, and decrease the lighting in the client's room.

Cevap

The safest plan of care is to initiate droplet precautions, activate a bed-exit alarm, and decrease the lighting in the client's room.
The correct approach safely addresses the transmission risk of the pathogen (droplet precautions), implements a least-restrictive fall prevention strategy (bed alarm), and provides an appropriate comfort measure for photophobia (dim lighting). It follows all safety and regulatory guidelines for nursing care.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the transmission route for Neisseria meningitidis.
The pathogen requires droplet precautions.
Meningococcal meningitis is spread through large respiratory secretions.
2
Evaluate the client's safety risk (acute delirium and attempting to climb out of bed).
A least-restrictive safety measure, such as a bed-exit alarm, is required.
Nursing standards mandate attempting and documenting less restrictive alternatives before utilizing physical restraints.
3
Address the client's specific clinical symptoms (severe photophobia).
The environment should be modified by dimming the lights.
Dim lighting prevents symptom exacerbation and reduces environmental stimulation that may worsen delirium.
4
Synthesize the findings to select the option that correctly addresses infection control, injury prevention, and symptom management without violating delegation or restraint protocols.
The correct plan incorporates droplet precautions, a bed alarm, and dimmed lighting.
This comprehensively addresses all safety and comfort needs while adhering to proper nursing scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Accident, Error, and Injury Prevention in Infectious Delirium
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 3011Soru →

A client in septic shock is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine. The medication is formulated as 4 mg4 \text{ mg} of norepinephrine in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W\text{D}_5\text{W}) and is currently infusing via a peripheral intravenous line at 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr}. The client's mean arterial pressure (MAP) drops to 52 mm Hg52 \text{ mm Hg}. The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate dose titration to 8 mcg/min8 \text{ mcg/min}. During the assessment, the nurse observes that the peripheral intravenous insertion site is cool, pale, and edematous. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the infusion immediately, aspirate any residual medication from the catheter, leave the catheter in place, and prepare to administer phentolamine.

Cevap

Stop the infusion immediately, aspirate any residual medication from the catheter, leave the catheter in place, and prepare to administer phentolamine.
Norepinephrine is a potent vesicant that causes severe tissue necrosis if extravasation occurs. The absolute priority is to immediately stop the infusion to prevent further tissue damage. The catheter must be left in place so the nurse can aspirate any residual medication from the line and inject the specific antidote, phentolamine (an alpha-blocker), directly into the extravasated tissue to induce vasodilation and restore perfusion. Only after the antidote is administered should the catheter be removed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the intravenous site assessment findings against the infusing medication.
The site is cool, pale, and edematous, indicating extravasation of norepinephrine.
Norepinephrine is a potent alpha-adrenergic agonist (vesicant) that causes severe localized vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis if it leaks into subcutaneous tissues.
2
Determine the priority intervention considering the conflicting clinical demands (low MAP vs. extravasation).
The infusion must be stopped immediately despite the critical MAP of 52 mm Hg.
Continuing the infusion will not effectively raise the systemic blood pressure since the drug is pooling in the tissue, and it will guarantee catastrophic localized tissue loss.
3
Calculate the current and ordered dosage to evaluate distracting clinical options.
Concentration is 4000 mcg/250 mL=16 mcg/mL4000 \text{ mcg} / 250 \text{ mL} = 16 \text{ mcg/mL}. Current rate of 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr} delivers 240 mcg/hr240 \text{ mcg/hr} or 4 mcg/min4 \text{ mcg/min}. The ordered 8 mcg/min8 \text{ mcg/min} requires 30 mL/hr30 \text{ mL/hr}.
Accurate dose calculation proves that options leaving the rate at 15 mL/hr are mathematically incorrect in addition to being clinically unsafe.
4
Formulate the correct sequence for vesicant extravasation management.
Stop the pump, aspirate residual drug, leave the catheter intact, and administer phentolamine.
The existing catheter provides direct access to the extravasated tissue bed to administer the antidote (phentolamine, an alpha-adrenergic antagonist), which restores local perfusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Vesicant Extravasation Management and Dosage Calculation
Soru 3012Soru →

A registered nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult client who is on strict bed rest due to a severe exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. The client has recently developed urinary incontinence and exhibits extremely dry, itchy skin on the upper extremities. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the basic care and comfort plan? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Float the client's heels off the mattress surface by placing a supportive pillow under the lower legs.; Apply a moisture barrier ointment to the perineal region after cleansing following each incontinent episode.; Apply a prescribed emollient lotion to the client's upper extremities immediately after bathing while the skin remains damp.

Cevap

The correct interventions are floating the client's heels off the mattress, applying a moisture barrier to the perineum after incontinence, and applying emollient lotion to the extremities while the skin is damp.
Appropriate basic care and comfort measures for a bedridden client with incontinence and dry skin must focus heavily on preventing pressure injuries and maintaining skin integrity. Floating the heels completely off the bed removes pressure from the vulnerable calcaneus bone. Applying a moisture barrier protects perineal skin from the corrosive effects of urine. Using emollients immediately after bathing seals in essential moisture to treat excessively dry, itchy skin.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation to identify risk factors related to basic care and comfort.
The client is completely immobile (strict bed rest), has newly developed moisture issues (urinary incontinence), and impaired skin barrier function (extremely dry skin).
Identifying specific physiological risk factors dictates the necessary nursing interventions to maintain skin integrity and comfort.
2
Evaluate each proposed nursing intervention for safety, appropriate delegation, and evidence-based practice guidelines.
Heel floating, moisture barrier application, and damp-skin emollient use are safe, evidence-based practices. Continuous high-Fowler's positioning, delegating skin evaluation to a UAP, and dismissing incontinence as normal aging are incorrect and unsafe actions.
Differentiating between therapeutic interventions and contraindicated practices ensures the delivery of safe, high-quality patient care.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Skin Integrity, Positioning, and Scope of Practice
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 3013Soru →

A nurse is facilitating a health education seminar for active older adults at a local senior center. During an open discussion, a 72-year-old participant shares several personal observations about their health over the past year. Which statement by the participant describes an expected, normal adaptation of the aging process?

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Cevap: It takes my eyes much longer to adjust to the darkness when I walk into a dimly lit theater.

Cevap

The statement describing eyes taking longer to adjust to the darkness represents a normal physiological adaptation of aging.
As individuals age, several expected physiological changes occur in the sensory systems. The pupil becomes smaller, and the pupillary sphincter muscle loses elasticity and responsiveness. This results in a decreased amount of light reaching the retina and a significantly slower ability to adapt to sudden changes in environmental lighting, such as entering a dark room from a brightly lit area. This is a normal and expected adaptation of the aging process.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the question stem to determine the clinical objective.
The nurse must distinguish between a normal age-related change (senescence) and abnormal pathological findings or emergencies.
Recognizing normal aging prevents unnecessary medical interventions while ensuring true pathologies are not incorrectly dismissed as 'just old age.'
2
Evaluate the cognitive and psychosocial statements for pathology.
Getting lost in familiar places suggests dementia/cognitive impairment. Feeling that life is a failure indicates despair and depression.
While processing speed may slow with age, frank disorientation and severe depression are pathological conditions that require medical and psychiatric evaluation.
3
Evaluate the physical symptom statements for acute life-threatening conditions.
Ache in the jaw and shoulder during physical exertion (sweeping) is a critical warning sign.
Older adults frequently present with atypical signs of myocardial infarction, such as jaw pain, shoulder pain, or extreme fatigue, rather than classic crushing chest pain.
4
Identify the remaining statement that correctly describes an expected physiological change.
Delayed visual adaptation to darkness is identified as the correct normal age-related change.
Aging causes the pupil to become smaller and the pupillary sphincter to become less responsive, leading to a slower adjustment time when transitioning between light and dark environments.

Anahtar Kavram

Distinguishing expected age-related physiological and sensory changes from pathological symptoms and medical emergencies.
Soru 3014Soru →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has left-sided hemiparesis from the bed to a wheelchair. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the steps from first to last.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence begins with positioning the wheelchair on the strong (right) side, followed by assisting the client to sit and applying a gait belt. The nurse then braces the weak (left) knee, helps the client stand and pivot on the strong (right) foot, and finally has the client grasp the armrest with the strong (right) hand before sitting.
When transferring a client with unilateral weakness (hemiparesis), the nurse must optimize the client's remaining strength and ensure safety. The sequence begins with environmental setup: placing the wheelchair on the unaffected (right) side so the client can lead the transfer with their strong side. Locking the brakes is mandatory. Next, the client is assisted to sit (to stabilize hemodynamics) and a gait belt is applied for safety. The nurse then stands directly in front, grasping the belt and crucially bracing the weak (left) knee to prevent it from collapsing. The client is assisted to stand and pivot on their strong (right) leg. Finally, the client uses their strong (right) arm to reach back for the armrest, ensuring a safe, controlled descent into the chair.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the wheelchair on the client's right side and ensure the brakes are locked.
The environment is prepared for a safe transfer toward the client's strong side.
Placing the chair on the unaffected side allows the client to pivot safely on their strong leg without crossing the weak leg.
2
Assist the client to a sitting position on the edge of the bed and apply a transfer belt.
The client is physiologically stabilized and the nurse has a secure method to support them.
Dangling prevents orthostatic hypotension, and the transfer belt ensures the nurse can safely guide the client's center of gravity.
3
Stand facing the client, grasp the transfer belt, and brace the client's left knee.
The nurse provides critical physical support to the hemiparetic extremity.
Bracing the weak left knee with the nurse's knee prevents it from buckling during weight-bearing.
4
Assist the client to stand and instruct them to pivot on the right foot.
The client moves safely from the bed toward the wheelchair.
The strong right leg must bear the majority of the weight to ensure a safe, balanced pivot maneuver.
5
Instruct the client to reach back and grasp the wheelchair armrest with the right hand.
The client is safely and securely seated in the wheelchair.
Reaching with the unaffected arm provides stability, widens the base of support, and guides the client's descent into the seat.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe client transfer and positioning for a client with hemiparesis
Soru 3015Soru →

A healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of aminophylline at a rate of 0.5 mg/kg/hr0.5 \text{ mg/kg/hr} for a client experiencing a severe exacerbation of asthma. The client weighs 75 kg75 \text{ kg}. The pharmacy supplies an IV bag containing aminophylline 500 mg500 \text{ mg} in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride}. At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse set the IV infusion pump? Record your answer rounding to the nearest tenth.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 18.8

Cevap

The correct infusion rate is 18.8 mL/hr18.8 \text{ mL/hr}.
To determine the correct IV pump setting, the nurse must first calculate the total hourly dose based on the client's weight (0.5 mg/kg/hr×75 kg=37.5 mg/hr0.5 \text{ mg/kg/hr} \times 75 \text{ kg} = 37.5 \text{ mg/hr}). Next, the nurse divides this required hourly dose by the concentration of the medication provided by the pharmacy (500 mg/250 mL=2 mg/mL500 \text{ mg} / 250 \text{ mL} = 2 \text{ mg/mL}). The resulting calculation (37.5 mg/hr÷2 mg/mL=18.75 mL/hr37.5 \text{ mg/hr} \div 2 \text{ mg/mL} = 18.75 \text{ mL/hr}) is then rounded to the nearest tenth as instructed, resulting in a final programmed pump setting of 18.8 mL/hr18.8 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the required hourly dose.
37.5 mg/hr37.5 \text{ mg/hr}
The prescription is weight-based, so the client's total weight must be multiplied by the per-kg dose parameter.
2
Determine the medication concentration.
2 mg/mL2 \text{ mg/mL}
To find the volume needed per hour, the concentration of the available medication must be established.
3
Calculate the IV infusion rate.
18.75 mL/hr18.75 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the total volume to infuse per hour.
4
Round to the nearest tenth.
18.8 mL/hr18.8 \text{ mL/hr}
The question specifies rounding the final answer to the nearest tenth for programming the infusion pump.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating weight-based continuous IV infusion rates
Soru 3016Soru →

A nurse preceptor is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare and administer parenteral medications. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse indicate a safety hazard and require the preceptor to intervene? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Connecting a secondary infusion of intravenous ceftriaxone to a primary IV line infusing Lactated Ringer's solution.; Programming a continuous dobutamine infusion pump based on the client's weight documented in pounds.; Flushing a central venous catheter with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride using a standard 3 mL3 \text{ mL} syringe.; Stopping a continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusion to administer an intravenous push analgesic through the same port.

Cevap

The actions requiring intervention are: connecting ceftriaxone with Lactated Ringer's, calculating a weight-based drip using pounds, flushing a central line with a 3 mL3 \text{ mL} syringe, and administering an IV push medication through a dedicated TPN line.
The correct selections represent critical breaches of parenteral safety protocols. Intravenous ceftriaxone and Lactated Ringer's solution are incompatible and form a dangerous precipitate. Weight-based infusions must always be calculated using kilograms; using pounds causes massive overdoses. Flushing a central venous catheter with a 3 mL3 \text{ mL} syringe creates excessive pressure that can rupture the line. Finally, total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires a strictly dedicated line to prevent infection and avoid complex drug incompatibilities.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the compatibility of ceftriaxone and Lactated Ringer's.
Identified as a severe safety hazard.
Calcium-containing solutions like Lactated Ringer's precipitate with ceftriaxone, which can be fatal.
2
Assess the methodology for programming weight-based critical care infusions.
Identified as a medication calculation hazard.
Using pounds instead of kilograms will more than double the intended dose, leading to severe toxicity.
3
Analyze the equipment chosen for flushing a central venous catheter.
Identified as a mechanical safety hazard.
A 3 mL3 \text{ mL} syringe generates too much pressure and can rupture the central line; a minimum 10 mL10 \text{ mL} syringe is required.
4
Evaluate the rate of administration for intravenous furosemide.
Identified as a safe practice.
The standard safe push rate for furosemide is 20 mg/minute20 \text{ mg/minute} to avoid ototoxicity, making 40 mg40 \text{ mg} over 2 minutes2 \text{ minutes} correct.
5
Assess the protocol for total parenteral nutrition (TPN) administration.
Identified as an incompatibility and infection hazard.
TPN lines must remain dedicated. Pushing other medications through a TPN line risks precipitation and introduces pathogens.
6
Evaluate the safety precautions for administering a vesicant medication like promethazine.
Identified as a safe practice.
Aspirating for blood return confirms central line patency, which is critical before administering vesicants to prevent severe tissue necrosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe parenteral medication administration requires strict adherence to IV compatibility guidelines, precise weight-based calculation using kilograms, appropriate equipment selection to prevent catheter damage, and the maintenance of dedicated lines for high-risk infusions like TPN.
Soru 3017Soru →

While conducting hourly rounds, a nurse observes that the intravenous administration set has completely disconnected from a client's central venous catheter hub. The client abruptly exhibits severe dyspnea, a dry cough, and grasps their chest in distress. In which sequence must the nurse execute the following interventions? (Arrange the actions in order of clinical priority, from first to last.)

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Cevap

The nurse must first clamp the catheter, then place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position, administer high-flow oxygen, activate the rapid response team, and finally obtain vital signs.
An air embolism is a life-threatening complication of central venous access devices that occurs when the system is open to atmospheric pressure. The sequence of actions follows the principle of immediate risk reduction and airway/breathing stabilization. The absolute first priority is to stop the source of the air by clamping the catheter. Next, positioning the client on their left side with the head down (Trendelenburg) uses gravity to trap the air in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing a fatal pulmonary artery occlusion. After securing the source and mitigating migration, 100% oxygen is applied to treat hypoxia and shrink the nitrogen-rich air bubble. Finally, the nurse calls for advanced help and assesses vital signs to guide the team's ongoing resuscitation efforts.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the central venous catheter.
Stops the entrainment of air.
The absolute first priority is removing the immediate hazard by closing the pathway that allows air to enter the bloodstream.
2
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air embolus in the right ventricle.
This maneuver prevents the air from advancing into the pulmonary artery, averting a right ventricular outflow tract obstruction.
3
Administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather face mask.
Relieves hypoxia and reduces the size of the embolus.
Providing 100% oxygen promotes the diffusion of nitrogen out of the air bubble, effectively shrinking the embolus while treating ischemia.
4
Activate the rapid response team.
Mobilizes advanced medical support.
Additional personnel and advanced interventions are necessary, but calling for help must not delay the initial life-saving physical maneuvers.
5
Measure the client's vital signs and oxygen saturation.
Establishes a baseline for the responding team.
Assessment data is required to evaluate the severity of the physiological decompensation, but it is the lowest priority compared to active resuscitation efforts.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of immediate risk mitigation for central venous access device (CVAD) complications, specifically suspected air embolism.
Soru 3018Soru →

A registered nurse in a university student health center is initiating a skin cancer primary prevention intervention for a newly enrolled young adult. In what order should the nurse implement the following actions? Arrange them from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence follows the nursing process (ADPIE): Assess current habits, identify learning needs (Diagnosis/Analysis), establish goals (Planning), educate the client (Implementation), and evaluate understanding (Evaluation).
When implementing any health promotion strategy, client teaching, or primary prevention plan, the registered nurse must follow the systematic approach of the nursing process. This ensures care is individualized, safe, and effective. The sequence must always be Assessment (gathering data on habits), Diagnosis/Analysis (identifying risks and learning needs), Planning (setting collaborative goals), Implementation (providing the actual education), and Evaluation (verifying understanding via teach-back).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Place the assessment phase first.
Selected 'Assess the student's current outdoor activities...'
The nursing process always begins with data collection and assessing the client's baseline knowledge and current practices.
2
Place the diagnosis/analysis phase second.
Selected 'Identify the client's specific learning needs...'
Once data is collected, the nurse must analyze it to pinpoint the exact risks and educational deficits.
3
Place the planning phase third.
Selected 'Collaborate with the student to establish realistic goals...'
Before teaching begins, the nurse and client must establish clear, mutually agreeable goals.
4
Place the implementation phase fourth.
Selected 'Educate the student on the proper application...'
The actual teaching and intervention execution happens according to the plan.
5
Place the evaluation phase last.
Selected 'Evaluate the student's comprehension...'
The final step is always to verify that the education was effective using methods like teach-back.

Anahtar Kavram

Application of the Nursing Process in Health Promotion and Client Education
Soru 3019Soru →

A registered nurse is analyzing the electronic fetal monitoring data for a laboring primigravida at 39 weeks gestation. The physiological data indicates a baseline fetal heart rate of 145 beats per minute accompanied by moderate baseline variability. Intermittently, the tracing exhibits visually abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate, plunging 45 beats per minute below the baseline. These specific episodes reach their nadir in 15 seconds and fully recover to baseline within 45 seconds. The occurrences appear sporadically and do not maintain a consistent temporal relationship with the onset or peak of the recorded uterine contractions. Based on this physiological data, which immediate intervention should the nurse implement?

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Cevap: Instruct the client to shift into a lateral recumbent or hands-and-knees posture.

Cevap

The correct intervention is to instruct the client to shift into a lateral recumbent or hands-and-knees posture.
The electronic fetal monitor tracing describes variable decelerations, defined by visually abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate (dropping from baseline to nadir in less than 30 seconds) that can occur at any time, independent of uterine contractions. These decelerations are caused by umbilical cord compression. The immediate priority intervention is to change the maternal position (such as to a lateral recumbent or hands-and-knees posture) to mechanically shift the fetus and relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord, thereby restoring adequate blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the specific characteristics of the fetal heart rate tracing.
The baseline is normal (145 bpm) with moderate variability, but there are abrupt decreases (reaching nadir in < 30 seconds) that are unrelated to the timing of contractions.
Accurately identifying the clinical criteria of the deceleration differentiates benign physiological responses from signs of fetal distress.
2
Correlate the analyzed fetal heart rate pattern with its underlying physiological etiology.
Visually abrupt decreases that vary in timing, depth, and duration relative to uterine contractions are classified as variable decelerations, which are caused by umbilical cord compression.
Linking the tracing pattern to its cause (cord compression) dictates the appropriate physiological intervention.
3
Select the highest priority nursing intervention to resolve the underlying etiology.
Maternal repositioning (such as moving to a lateral or hands-and-knees position) is the most effective immediate action.
Changing the mother's position mechanically shifts the fetus, directly relieving the physical compression on the umbilical cord and restoring fetal blood flow.

Anahtar Kavram

Interpretation of Variable Fetal Heart Rate Decelerations and Nursing Prioritization
Soru 3020Soru →

A client presents to the emergency department with a severe asthma exacerbation. The initial assessment reveals tachypnea with a respiratory rate of 3434 breaths/min and diffuse wheezing. An initial arterial blood gas (ABG) shows a pH of 7.527.52, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 2828 mm Hg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 2424 mEq/L. Two hours later, the client appears drowsy, wheezing is diminished, and the respiratory rate has decreased to 1414 breaths/min. A repeat ABG reveals a pH of 7.317.31, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 5656 mm Hg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 2424 mEq/L. Based on these findings, what is the most accurate clinical conclusion?

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Cevap: The client is experiencing respiratory muscle fatigue, indicating impending respiratory failure.

Cevap

The client is experiencing respiratory muscle fatigue, indicating impending respiratory failure.
The correct answer accurately identifies that the client is tiring out. Initially, the client was hyperventilating (respiratory alkalosis) to maintain oxygenation and overcome airway resistance. The later findings of a low pH (acidosis) and high PaCO2PaCO_2 (hypercapnia), combined with a depressed level of consciousness and a decreased respiratory rate, indicate the respiratory muscles are failing. This causes carbon dioxide to rapidly accumulate, signaling impending respiratory arrest that requires immediate medical intervention, such as intubation and mechanical ventilation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the initial arterial blood gas (ABG) and clinical presentation.
The initial pH is 7.527.52 (alkalotic), PaCO2PaCO_2 is 2828 mm Hg (low), and HCO3−HCO_3^- is 2424 mEq/L (normal).
The client is initially hyperventilating in response to the asthma attack, causing 'blowing off' of carbon dioxide and resulting in respiratory alkalosis.
2
Evaluate the clinical changes and the repeat ABG after two hours.
The client is now drowsy with a decreased respiratory rate. The repeat ABG shows a pH of 7.317.31 (acidotic), PaCO2PaCO_2 of 5656 mm Hg (high), and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 2424 mEq/L (normal).
The client is now retaining carbon dioxide, which has led to uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
3
Correlate the laboratory findings with the clinical picture to draw a conclusion.
The transition from hyperventilation to hypoventilation, along with drowsiness and diminished wheezing, indicates respiratory muscle fatigue.
The client is exhausted and no longer able to maintain the effort required to breathe against airway resistance, leading to CO2 accumulation and impending respiratory failure.

Anahtar Kavram

In an acute asthma exacerbation, a transition from respiratory alkalosis (hyperventilation) to respiratory acidosis (carbon dioxide retention), accompanied by a decreasing respiratory rate, diminished wheezing, and drowsiness, is an ominous clinical sign indicating severe respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure.
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